POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQS

Q.1 Which among the following is/are the composition of the reconstituted Inter state Council ? 1. Chief Minister 2. All the Union Ministers 3. Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Only 6 Union Ministers are there. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre. It is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest. It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order, 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission. Q.2 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans. C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.3 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D Q.4 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Q.5 Consider the following statements : 1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution 2. Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six years Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five years. Q.6 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements : 1. It is semi judicial in nature 2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha 3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action Which among the above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. A The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. Q.7 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India 2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour 3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House 4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 4 C) 2 only D) 1 & 4 Ans.A Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as “Zero Hour”. It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards. Q.8 Which among the following are the duties of the additional solicitor general ? 1. Represents the Union Government in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) of the Constitution 2. Appear whenever required in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Union Government 3. Discharge other functions that are conferred on a Law Officer by the Constitution or any other Law for the time being in force. Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.9 Statements : 1) Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court 2) Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Advocate general & Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of President No Comments on POLITICAL  SCIENCE  MCQ SET-20- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU, LAXMIKANT INDIAN POLITY Leave A Comment Cancel Reply Logged in as admin. Log out » Comments Name Email

Q.1 With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) , consider the following statements : 1. PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands 2. The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal 3. 121 member states are the part of the PCA including India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA): PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899 The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal 121 member states (119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo & Palestine)  are the part of the PCA. India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899. Q.2 Consider the following statements : 1.In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary powers are left to the states 2. Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration i.e. Federal , Provincial & Current Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B -In US , Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary powers are left to the states -Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three list is vested in the Parliament Q.3 Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” ? A) It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance B) These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal C) Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state D) These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence Ans. D Statutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance Other Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal Discretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence Q.4 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute ? 1. President of India 2. Representatives of Government of India 3. Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliament. Primary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics, development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences. Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta, the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959, through an act of Indian parliament, Indian Statistical Institute act, 1959. ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of the Government of India. Members of this council include the President of ISI, the Chairman of ISI, representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI, scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC, representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI, and representative from academic staff of ISI, including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISI. The second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth . Q.5 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival ? 1. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year 2. The duration of stay can be extended for one year 3. Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa & Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B Tourist visa scheme Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements, have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India. Citizens of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, mainland China, Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian Citizenship. Visa On Arrival: Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival (VOA) in Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata or Mumbai. The visa is issued for business, tourist, medical and conference categories, and has a validity of 30 days.[3] The cost is ₹2,000. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year.[4][1] Alternatively, foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days, or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA scheme. Double entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa. Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa. The duration of stay

Q.1 In context with the UNGA (United Nation General Assembly) consider the following statements : 1. The UN General Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council 2. All the 193 UN member states have equal representation in the UN General Assembly 3. US has always spoken first at the UN General Assembly since the 10th UNGA in 1955. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A UNGA 2019: What is UNGA? Who gets to vote at UNGA? Each sovereign state gets one vote and the votes are not binding on the membership, except in budgetary matters. The UN General Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council. What are the powers of UNGA? The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members. Who is the current UNGA President? The current UNGA President is Tijjani Muhammad-Bande of Nigeria, who was elected to the post on June 4, 2019. He succeeds María Fernanda Espinosa of Ecuador, whose term ends in September 2019. There are how many countries in the UN General Assembly? All the 193 UN member states have equal representation in the UN General Assembly. Which countries are not a part of UNGA? Among the world’s 196 countries, 193 are UN member states and three nations- Palestine, the Vatican City and Taiwan are not a part of the international organization as their country status is not recognized globally due to political and religious reasons. Is North Korea a UN member state? The two Koreas-North and South Korea were admitted as members of the United Nations in 1991. Which country always speaks first at the UNGA? Brazil has always spoken first at the UN General Assembly since the 10th UNGA in 1955. Q.2 With reference to the Citizenship Amendment Bill-2019 , consider the following statements : 1. The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 covers only 6 communities 2. As per the bill it is compulsory to reside in India for 6 years to get Indian citizenship Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Citizenship Amendment Bill-2019 : 1. The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 (CAB) will be granted citizenship of India to Hindu, Christian, Sikh, Parsi, Jain, and Buddhist people who have fled from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh due to the religious persecution. 2. Such illegal migrants who have entered India by 31 December 2014 will be able to apply for Indian citizenship. 3. Right now, it is compulsory to reside in India for 11 years to get Indian citizenship. The new bill reduces the residency limit to six years. 4. The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 covers 6 communities – Hindu, Jain, Sikh, Parsi, Buddhist, and Christian migrants. 5. It has also been arranged that any legal action already taken against such people for s displacement or illegal migration will not affect his eligibility for permanent citizenship. 6. If the OCI cardholders violate the conditions, the center will have the right to cancel their card. 7. This bill was introduced in Lok Sabha in 2016. It was passed in Lok Sabha this year but stuck in the Rajya Sabha. 8. The Citizenship Amendment Bill was passed to amend the Citizenship Act, 1955. 9. It has been decided to give citizenship to people of other religions except Muslims in the new bill. The Opposition is taking up this matter and saying it a biased bill. 10. The Ministry of Home Affairs has empowered the concerned authorities in Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi to provide citizenship and natural certificates to migrants under sections 5 and 6 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Q.3 Consider the following statements : 1. Under the Vote of Credit, Lok Sabha authorizes the council of ministers to continue to incur expenditure out of the consolidated fund of India till next appropriation bill is adopted 2.In Budget 2017, Lok Sabha adopted Vote of Credit Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Vote of Credit – It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha. So far , it has not been adopted in India Under the Vote of Account, Lok Sabha authorizes the council of ministers to continue to incur expenditure out of the consolidated fund of India till next appropriation bill is adopted Q.4 Which among the following motions can be moved in Lok Sabha only ? 1. Call Attention Motion 2. Adjournment Motion 3. Cut Motions 4. Censure Motion Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 & 4 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C Adjournment Motion,  Cut Motions, Censure Motion- can be moved in Lok Sabha only Call attention motion in the Rajya Sabha is called Motion For Papers (i) Adjournment Motion: At the end of the question-hour in the Parliament, motion moved by a member when it is desired to draw the attention of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance. (ii) Privilege Motion: A motion moved by a member if he feels that a Minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or of any one or more of its members by withholding the facts of a case or by giving a distorted version of facts etc. (iii) Censure Motion: A motion which seeks to censure the government for

Q.1 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India 2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour 3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House 4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 4 C)  2 only D) 1 & 4 Ans.A   Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as “Zero Hour”. It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.   Q.2 Which one among the following statements regarding Half-an-Hour Discussion in the Lok Sabha is correct? A) The Speaker may allot Half-an-Hour on three sittings in a week for raising discussions on matter of sufficient public importance B) Half-an-Hour discussion is held every day in the House followed by a statement by the concerned Minister C) Half-an-Hour discussion has to be completed by voting D) Half-an-Hour discussion is taken up at 2:00 PM in the House Ans.A   (1) The Speaker may allot half an hour on three sittings in a week, for raising discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent question, oral or written, and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact.   (2) A member wishing to raise a matter shall give notice in writing to the Secretary-General three days in advance of the day on which the matter is desired to be raised, and shall shortly specify the point or points that he wishes to raise:   Provided that the notice shall be accompanied by an explanatory note stating the reasons for raising discussion on the matter in question: Provided further that if a notice is signed by more than one member it shall be deemed to have been given by the first signatory only:   Provided further that the Speaker may with the consent of the Minister concerned waive the requirement concerning the period of notice   (3) The Speaker shall decide whether the matter is of sufficient public importance to be put down for discussion, and may not admit a notice which, in his opinion, seeks to revise the policy of Government.   (4) If more than two notices have been received and admitted by the Speaker, the Secretary-General shall hold a ballot with a view to draw two notices and the notices shall be put down in the order in which they were received in point of time: Provided that if any matter put down for discussion on a particular day is not disposed of on that day it shall not be set down for any other day, unless the member so desires, in which case it shall be included in the ballot for the next available day.   (5) There shall be no formal motion before the House for voting. The member who has given notice may make a short statement and the *1[members who have previously intimated to the Speaker may ask a question for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact. Thereafter, the Minister shall reply shortly:] Provided that not more than four members who have previously intimated to the Secretary-General may be permitted to ask a question each for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact.   Explanation.- A member wishing to ask a question shall make such request in writing before the commencement of the sitting at which the discussion is to take place. If such requests are received from more than four members, a ballot shall be held to determine the names of first four members who may be permitted to ask a question each.   Q.3 Consider the following statements on adjournment motion in the Lok Sabha: 1. If objection to leave being granted is taken, the Speaker shall ensure that not less than fifty members rise to support the motion for leave of the House being granted 2. The motion that ‘the House do now adjourn’ shall be taken up at 16:00 hours or earlier if the Speaker so directs 3.The Speaker shall prescribe the time limit for speeches 4. If the motion is withdrawn after its discussion, the House shall adjourn immediately Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 1,2 & 3 D) 1,2 & 4 Ans.D   The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House.   The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.   The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance

Q.1 Consider the following statements : The draft constitution as well as the constitution of India adopted by the constituent assembly on 26 November 1949 were in both English & Hindi As per the constitution of India Parliament by law provides others all proceedings in the supreme court shall be in both English & Hindi Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.A As per the constitution of India Parliament by law provides others all proceedings in the supreme court shall be in English.   Q.2 Consider the following statements : In part IX of the constitution of India there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct elections in every Panchayat The Eleventh schedule of the constitution distributes powers between the state legislature & the Panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India & states Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D   3 Consider the following statements : The governor may reserve a bill for consideration of the president of India The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinance issued in the state at any time Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.C   Q.4 Consider the following g statements : In the parliamentary system of India if the President of India returns a bill for reconsideration of the houses & both the houses pass the bill again without any amendment & the bill is again presented to the President, President has the power to withhold his assent from the bill As per the constitution of India, Union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok sabha & Rajya sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D Union council of ministers is responsible to the Lok sabha In the parliamentary system of India if the President of India returns a bill for reconsideration of the houses & both the houses pass the bill again without any amendment, then the bill will be passed.   Q.5 Consider the following statements : For a person to be eligible for election for election as the Vice President , he must be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha No person has ever been re-elected as the vice president of India for a second term Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   6 Consider the following statements : The annual financial statement is caused to be laid by the union finance minister before both the houses of Parliament General discussion of the annual finance statement takes place only in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.7 Consider the following statements : A chief metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of death A metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life Which of the statements given above are correct? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.C   Q.8 Which of the following statements is not correct ? A) Telephone tapping infracts article 21 of the constitution of India unless permitted by law B) Article 22 of constitution of India provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest C) Refusal of grant bail in a murder case without reasonable ground would amount to deprivation of personal liberty under artice 23 of constitution of India D) Article 24 of the constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories or mines or in any other hazardous jobs Ans.C              

Q.1 Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour: 1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure. 2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure. 3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation. 4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure. The correct statements is/are: A) 1 & 2 only. B) 3 & 4 only. C) 2 & 3 only. D) 1 & 4 only. Ans. D Calling attention motion is mentioned in the rules of procedure but not Zero hour. Both are Indian innovation.   Q.2 The role of ministry of Parliamentary affairs among other things, is to : A) conduct of the business of house B) fix dates of summoning & prorogation  of the two house of parliament C) see the matters pertaining to parliamentary committees D) advise speaker in the well of house Ans.B Functions: •  Renders secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. •  Constitutes consultative committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during and between sessions. •  Pursues other ministries for prompt and proper implementation of assurances given by ministers in the Parliament. •  Sets dates for summoning and prorogation of the two houses of Parliament: dissolution of Lok Sabha, President’s Address to Parliament •  Plans and coordinates legislative and other official business in both houses •  Acts as liaison with leaders and whips of various parties and groups represented in Parliament •  Sets government’s stand on private members’ bills and resolutions •  Advises to ministries on procedural and other parliamentary matters •  Organises of Youth Parliament Competitions in schools and colleges throughout the country •  Deals with salaries and allowances of officers of Parliament and salary, allowances, and pensions of members of Parliament, as well as for Leaders of the Opposition   Q.3 Which among the following are the eligibility conditions for considering man booker prize ? 1. It must be a full length novel 2. It must be written by a citizen of the commonwealth or the republic of Ireland 3. It must be published for the first time in the year of the prize 4. It may be self published novel published in any language (with English translation) Codes: A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1 & 3 D) 2 & 4 Ans. C Any full length novel (or at least, a long novella) written by a citizen of the Commonwealth, the Republic of Ireland or Zimbabwe. * No English translation of a book written originally in any other language. * No self-published books where the author is the publisher or where a company has been specifically setup to publish that book. * The books have to have a scheduled publication date between 1 October 2009 and 30 September 2010.   Q.4 The survey of India & National Atlas & Thematic Mapping organisation fall under jurisdiction of : A) Ministry of Science & technology B) Ministry of Earth Science C) Ministry of Defence D) Ministry of Communication & Information technology Ans. A   Q.5 In the new consumer price index data, which among the following group of commodities has been assigned highest weightage ? A) Education, transport & medical care B) Food, beverage & tobacco C) Fuel & light D) Clothing & footwear Ans. B   Q.6 The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in: A) Constitution of India. B) Rules of the house. C) A separate Parliamentary Statute. D) None of the above Ans. C   Q.7 The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by: 1. Any court of law. 2. Lok Sabha. 3. President of India. A) 1 & 2 only. B) 2 & 3 only. C) 2 only. D) None of these. Ans. D It Can be questioned by speaker of Lok Sabha.   Q.8 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill. 1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament. 2. President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses. A) 1 only. B) 2 only. C) Both are correct D) None of the above Ans. B   Q.9 The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by: A) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament. B) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament. C) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures. D) By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment. Ans. A It is mentioned in 2nd Schedule  

Q.1 The Supreme Court of India is different from its counterpart in the USA A) In its role as the guardian of the Constitution B) In its advisory role C) In its role as the Supreme authority in the judicial field in the country D) In its writ jurisdiction Ans. B   Q.2 Which of the following are common features associated with federalism of India & USA? 1. Mention of the concurrent list in the constitution 2. Written constitutions 3. Division of powers between the centre and the states 4. Residuary powers lie with the states Codes: A) 2 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) All are correct Ans. A   Q.3 Which of the following are envisaged by the right against exploitation in the constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1 & 4 Ans. D   Q.4 Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states? 1. Election of the President 2. Representation of states in Parliament 3. Any of the lists in the seventh Schedule 4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a state Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1 & 4 Ans. A   Q.5 Which of the following are the features of Indian federal system? 1. Divisions of powers between the centre and the units 2. Residuary powers vested with the centre 3. Existence of the nominal and real executive A) 1,2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 1 & 3 D) 2 & 3 Ans. B      

Q.1 India is represented at the IMF by an executive director . He also represents : 1. Bangladesh 2. Sri lanka 3. Bhutan 4. Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) Only 1 Ans. A   Q.2 Which among the following is not the idea of global security emerged in 1990 in response to the global nature of threats ? A) Global warming B) International terrorism C) Internal disturbances D) Health epidemics like AIDS & bird flu Ans. C   Q.3 Land reclamation is the subject dealt by : A) Ministry of rural development B) Ministry of agriculture C) Ministry of panchayati raj D) Ministry of earth sciences Ans. B   Q.4 Which of the following is superimposed international boundary ? A) USA –Mexico boundary B) India-Pakistan boundary along Jammu & Kashmir C) 38th North parallel boundary between North & south Korea D) Chile-Argentina boundary along Andes Ans. B   Q.5 Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Bhopal Gas Leak disaster & special laws related thereto ? A) Ministry of petroleum & natural gas B) Ministry of home affairs C) Ministry of science & technology D) Ministry of Chemical & fertilizers Ans. D   Q.6 The Indo-Us nuclear deal signed in the year 2008 enables American investment in what aspect of Indian industry ? A) Nuclear defence technology B) Nuclear safety & disaster management C) Nuclear energy D) Nuclear medicine Ans. A  

Q.1 Statements: 1) Union territories are administered by the President through an administrator 2) President may appoint a governor of any adjoining state as administrator of Union territory 3) Power to determine the structure of administration in UT is vested in the Parliament 4) Parliament can constitute HC for UT Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Kolkata High Court          A & N islands 2) Punjab & Haryana High Court   Chandigarh 3) Kerala High Court                  Lakshadweep 4) Chennai High Court                 Pondicherry Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q. 3 Which of the following are included in the Union executive ? 1) President 2) Vice President 3) Council of Ministers 4) Attorney General Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) Only  1 & 2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.4 Which of the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans. C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers   Q.5 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the President ? 1) President have the right to know what his government is doing 2) It shall be the duty of the PM to communicate to the President all the decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the Union & Proposals 3) Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks 4) President can hold the assent to the bill Codes : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 1 & 2 Ans. D Legislative powers : President can hold the assent to the bill Ordinance Powers : Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks   Q.6 In context with the Council of ministers, which among the statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers is real executive 2) Minister shall hold the office during the pleasure of President 3) COM shall be collectively responsible to the house of people Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.7 With reference to the Attorney General of India , which among the following statements are correct ? 1) AG represents the government 2) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President 3) Acts as an advocate in the Union government 4) Eligible to take part in the parliament proceedings 5) He/she is not a member of the cabinet but can speak in both the houses 6) He/she does not have the right to vote Codes: A) 1,3,4,5,6 B) 2,4,5,6 C) 2,3,4,5,6 D) 1,2,3,4,5,6 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the Rajya Sabha, which among the following are correct ? 1) Members are elected by the state legislative assembly 2) Seats are allocated on the basis of the population 3) All the Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.9 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Imposition , abolition, remission, alteration & regulation of tax comes under the money bill 2) Imposition of fines or penalties by any local authority for the local purposes also comes under the money bill Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Botha are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.10 With reference to the money bill, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Money bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 2) After passing into Lok Sabha, bill shall be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations 3) Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha 4) Rajya Sabha can not hold the money bill for more than 14 days Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D      

Q.1  Consider the statements relating to the Procedure of the election of the speaker & the Deputy speaker of the Lok sabha: 1) the election of a speaker shall be held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix & the secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date. 2) The election of a Deputy speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix & the secretary General  shall send to every member notice of this date. 3) At any time before noon on the date so fixed ,any member may give notice in writing of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House. Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) Only  2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,& 3 Ans. C   Q.2 The writ of prohibition is issued by the Superior Court: A) To prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice. B) To an inferior court or body exercising  judicial functions to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review. C) To an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial. D) Where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office. Ans. A   Q.3 Which among the following is not a fundamental Duty ? A) To develop the scientific temper, humanism & the spirit of inquiry & reform. B) To uphold & Protect the sovereignity ,unity & integrity of India. C) To safeguard public property & to abjure violence. D) To practice family planning & to control population. Ans. D   Q.4 Which among the following are the recommendations of the Sarkaria commission on the appointment of the Governor ? 1) He/She must not have participated in active politics for some time before his/her appointment as Governor. 2) The Governor should recommend the proclamation of emergency without dissolving the assembly. 3) The Governor should not be the native of the state. 4) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be consulted by the president in selecting a Governor. Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. B   Q.5 Consider the following statements: 1) Water is considered in a concurrent list. 2) 73rd Constitutional amendment provides Rural drinking water & sanitation are the matter that could be dissolved to the Panchayats. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B   Q.6 Consider the statements relating to the Social Audit: 1) It contains Financial & non-financial resources that could be used by the public agencies.  2) For awarenes generation under MNREGA  every state govt is required to undertake the exercise to publicise the key provisions of the schemes. 3) It facilitate verification of the records with  stakeholders/beneficiaries. 4) The Village resource persons are deployed for social audit. Options: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) All are correct Ans. D