Q.1 With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) , consider the following statements :

1. PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands

2. The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal

3. 121 member states are the part of the PCA including India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 2

C) 2 & 3

D) 1,2,3

Ans. A

Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA):

PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899

The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal

121 member states (119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo & Palestine)  are the part of

the PCA. India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899.

Q.2 Consider the following statements :

1.In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary

powers are left to the states

2. Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration i.e. Federal , Provincial & Current

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both are correct

D) Both are incorrect

Ans. B

-In US , Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary

powers are left to the states

-Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three

list is vested in the Parliament

Q.3 Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” ?

A) It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance

B) These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar,

Orissa & West Bengal

C) Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state

D) These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose,

even if it is not within their respective legislative competence

Ans. D

Statutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of

financial assistance

Other Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of

Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal

Discretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for

any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence

Q.4 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute ?

1. President of India

2. Representatives of Government of India

3. Prime Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) 2 & 3

C) Only 2

D) 1 & 2

Ans. C

Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliament.

Primary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics, development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences. Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta, the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959, through an act of Indian parliament, Indian Statistical Institute act, 1959. ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of the Government of India.

Members of this council include the President of ISI, the Chairman of ISI, representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI, scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC, representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI, and representative from academic staff of ISI, including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISI.

The second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth .

Q.5 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival ?

1. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year

2. The duration of stay can be extended for one year

3. Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa & Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 2 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 1 & 3

D) 1 & 2

Ans. B

Tourist visa scheme

Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements, have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India. Citizens of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, mainland China, Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian Citizenship.

Visa On Arrival:

Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival (VOA) in Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata or Mumbai. The visa is issued for business, tourist, medical and conference categories, and has a validity of 30 days.[3] The cost is ₹2,000. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year.[4][1] Alternatively, foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days, or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA scheme.

Double entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa. Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa. The duration of stay cannot be extended

FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA

Q.6 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Central Vigilance Commision ?

1. Prime Minister & the Minister of Home Affairs gives recommendation  on the appointment of the commissioners

2. CVC have the powers to register criminal cases as well as economic crimes

3. CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 3

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 1

Ans. D

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.

The Commission shall consist of:

•       A Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson;

•       Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members;

The CVC is not an investigating agency.

The only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government which is done r.[6]

Corruption investigations against government officials can proceed only after the government permits them. The CVC publishes a list of cases where permissions are pending, some of which may be more than a year old

The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).

The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.

The Secretariat consists of a Secretary of the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt of India, one officer of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Govt of India, ten officers of the rank of Director/Deputy Secretary, four Under Secretaries and office staff

•       CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC’s advice in corruption cases.[13]

•       CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299.[1] Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries.[14]

•       CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department.

•       CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases.

Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the Committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government

Q.7 With reference to the Vote of No-confidence, consider the following statements :

1. It shows disapproval & results in the resignation of ministers

2. It is directed against the entire cabinet but not against an individual minister

3. No-confidence motions may not require reasons for the motion to be specified

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A) 1 & 3

B) Only 1

C) 2 & 3

D) Only 2

Ans. C

No Confidence” may lead to compulsory resignation of the council of ministers or other position-holder(s), whereas “Censure” is meant to show disapproval and does not result in the resignation of ministers. The censure motion can be against an individual minister or a group of ministers, but the no-confidence motion is directed against the entire cabinet censure motions may need to state the reasons for the motion while no-confidence motions may not require reasons to be specified. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India). The motion is admitted for discussion when a minimum of 50 members of the house support the motion. With the anti-defection law, Vote of no-confidence has no relevance left in case the majority party has an absolute majority in the House. If the majority party (with an absolute majority in the House) issues whip to vote party members in favor of the Government, then it is impossible to remove the Government by no-confidence motion. Hence the no-confidence exercise of House merely becomes the no-confidence exercise of the Party.

Q.8 The relative precedence of the Private Members’ Bill in a particular category is determined by

A) The Speaker

B) The Deputy Speaker

C) The Committee on Private Members’ Bill

D) Ballot

Ans. D

A private member’s bill in a parliamentary system of government is a bill (proposed law) introduced into a legislature by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch. A “private member” is any member of parliament (MP) who is not a member of the cabinet (executive).

Q.129 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed :

A) One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assembly

B) Two-third of the total members in the legislative assembly

C) Half of the total members in the legislative assembly

D) One third of the total members in the legislative assembly

Ans. D

FRAMED FROM Wikepedia

Q.9 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries of the government of India ?

A) Minister of Defence

B) Ministry of Home Affairs

C) Ministry of Science & Technology

D) Ministry of Tourism & Culture

Ans.C

FRAMED FROM Laxmikant-Indian polity

Q.10 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at

A) First hour of the sitting

B) Last hour of the sitting

C) 12.00 noon

D) No fixed timings

Ans. C

Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions.

Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as “Zero Hour”. It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time.

Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.