UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY

Raashid Shah

HISTORY MCQ SET-5

Q.1 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Polaj : Land which is annually cultivated for each crop in succession 2) Chachar: Land that has lain fallow for three or four years 3) Banjar : Land uncultivated for five years or more Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 With reference to the invaders which among the following is the correct chronological order ? A) Greeks-Shakas-Kushans B) Sakas-Kushans-Greeks C) Greeks-Kushans-Sakas D) Sakas-Greeks-Kushans Ans. A   Q.3 Statements: 1) Ikshvaku rulers of southern India were antagonist towards Buddhism 2) Pala rulers of eastern India were patrons of Buddhism Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B   Q.4 Statements: 1) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq issued a new gold coin which was called Dinar by ibn Batutah 2) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq wanted to issue token currency in gold coins to promote trade with West Asian & North African Countries Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.5 Which of the following suggested the reconstitution of the viceroy’s executive council in which all the portfolios including that of the war members were to be held by the Indian leaders A) Simla conference B) Cabinet mission C) Mountbatten plan D) Cripps proposal Ans. A   Q.6 What were the resolutions passed in the congress working committee that met at Bardoli ? 1) Removal of untouchability 2) Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity 3) Starting national schools Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Bardoli resolution 1922, suspended the Non-cooperation movement   Q.7 In context with the teachings of Jainism, which among the following are correct ? 1) It believed in the concept of Karma 2) It did not condemn the caste system 3) Jainism rejected the authority of Vedas Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 “ Seals are the most distinctive products of the Harappan culture”. Consider the following statements : 1) They were used to facilitate long distance communication 2) They are engraved with the figures of animals 3) Seals usually have a line of writing at the top containing name & title of the owner Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Seals are square or rectangular tablets of clay with boss on one side & engravings on other side   Q.9 Statements: 1) Minorities want separate electorates because it would ensure muslims had a meaningful voice in the governance of the country 2) Nationalists were against the separate electorates because if they are isolated thay can never convert themselves into a majority Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.10 “Audience Hall & Mahanavmi dibba” were the two main platform of Vijayanagar’s king palaces, consider the following statements: 1) Audience hall is a platform with slots of wooden pillars & pillars support a staircase going to the second floor 2) Mahanavmi dibba was located on one of the highest points in the city  Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C    

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HISTORY MCQ SET-4

Q.1 Which of the following were the observations of Ibn Batuta ? 1) Cities were densely populated & prosperous 2) Soil were fertile which makes agriculture very productive 3) Unique system of communication was present 4) He described Coconut & Paan as two kinds of plant Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.2 Statements: 1) Al-Biruni’s Kitab-Ul-Hind was written in Arabic on religion, Festivals , Laws & Metrology 2) Rihla was a book of travels that was written by Ibn Batuta giving details of Soocial & cultural life Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.3 Which of the following were the observations of the Bernier ? 1) He described Indian society as undifferentiated masses of impoverished people 2) According to him the major difference between Mughal India & Europe was the lack of property in the Mughal India 3) Cities & Towns were ruined & contaminated with ill air Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.4 Statements: 1) Lingayats do not practice funerary rites such as cremation 2) Lingayats challenged the idea of caste & & questioned the theory of rebirth 3) Alvars refers to the devotee of Vishnu while Nayanars were the devotees of Shiva Which among above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following statements regarding Sufism are correct ? 1) They laid emphasis on seeking salvation through devotion 2) Silsila signifies a continuous link between master & disciple Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.6 Which among the following statements are correct regarding Chishtis ? 1) Major feature of the Chisti tradition was austerity 2) Chistis accepted unsolicited grants & donations from the political elites Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct regarding Bhakti saints ? 1) Guru Nanak advocated a form of Nirguna Bhakti 2) Guru Nanak rejected sacrifices, ritual baths & image worships 3) Shankaradeva encouraged establishment of Satra or Monasteries for transmission of spiritual knowledge Codes: A) 1 & 2 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 Amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Viijayanagar empire, consider the statements regarding this system : 1) Amara-nayakas were the military commanders who were given territiories to govern by the Rayas 2) They collected taxes & other dues from the peasants & traders in the area Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.9 Which of the following were the observations by the Abdur Razzaq in Vijayanagar empire regarding Fortifications & roads ? 1) Forts encircled not only the city but also the agriculture & forests 2) Outermost wall linked the hills surrounding the city 3) No mortar or cementing agent was employed in the construction 4) Dome over the gate are regarded as the typical feature of the architecture Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.10 Statements: 1) Pargana was an administrative subdivision of a mughal province 2) Amin was an official responsible for ensuring that imperial regulations were carried out in the provinces Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C  

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HISTORY MCQ SET-3

Q.1 Statements : 1) Kushans were considered to issue large number of copper coins 2) Kujala kadphises & Kanishka adopted & patronized Buddhism 3) Vima kadphises adopted shaivism & was Shiva devotes Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Abhidhama Mahavishasa was prepared in fourth Buddhist council 2) During Kanishka’s time Buddhism got divided into Hinayana & Mahayana 3) Rabatak inscription mentions father of Kanishka 4) During Kushan empire Vima kadphises maintained silk route Codes : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.3 Which among the following statements regarding Rock edicts are correct ? 1) Rock edict I deals with the prohibition of animal slaughter 2) Rock edict VIII deals with the Ashoka’s first Dhamma yatra to bodhgaya 3) Rummindei pillar inscription mentions Ashoka’s visit to lumbini Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Rock edict II : provides care for man & animals Rock edict IV : Dhammaghosha is ideal to mankind Nigalisagar pillar inscription describes that Ashoka had increased height of Stupa of  Buddha Konakamana to its double size   Q.4 Which of the following are not included in Mahajanapadas ? 1) Malla 2) Chedi 3) Panchala 4) Kosala 5) Anga Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) All above are included Ans. D Vriji, Matsaya, Surasena, Kasii, Magadha, Avanti, Gandhara, Kamboja are also included  in Mahajanapadas   Q.5 Which of the following are the correct statements regarding Mahayana & Hinayana? 1) Mahayana believes in heavenliness of Buddha 2) Hinayana don’t believes in idol worship 3) Mahayana were based on possibility of universal liberation from suffering of all Beings & existence of Buddhas Codes: A) 1 & 2 B) Only 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C   Q.6 Which of the following statements regarding Ajatshatru are correct ? 1) He has sponsored first Buddhist council 2) Under Udayin Pataliputra became largest city under Mauryas 3) Mahshilakantaka & Rathamusalawere two war equipments used against Licchavis Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements regarding 2nd Buddhist council are correct ? 1) This council was to settle dispute on Vinay Pitaka 2) It was held after Mahaparinirvana of Buddha 3) Dispute on Vinaypitaka was on 10 points Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A 1st Buddhist council was held after Mahaparinirvana of Buddha   Q.8 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Concept of Moksha was denied by the Buddhism 2) Buddhavamsa mentions 29 Buddhas 3) Buddhacharita deals with Buddha’s life which was written in Sanskrit language Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Mahavibhasa Sutra deals with Vasumitra 2) Lalitvistara deals with biography of Buddha 3) Divyavadana deals with Mauryan & Sunga history Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 Which among the following are the findings at Mohenjodaro ? 1) Bronze figure of dancing girl 2) Seal of mother goddess 3) Cotton weaving 4) Evidence of violent & killing Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.11 In context with the Indus valley civilization which among the following statements are correct ? 1) They were not aware of the use of Iron 2) Seals were in the range from 1 to 5 cm & the most remarkable was Pashupati seal 3) Surkotda & Dholavira were the two burial practices Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.12 Which among the following statements regarding Nangiarkoothu is/are correct which was the part of ancient Sanskrit theatre koodiattam ? 1) It is a solo performance comprises of acting and dancing 2) It is performed by both men & women from nambiar community Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A It is performed only by a woman from nambiar community. Hence it is called as nangiar koothu. Nangiar means women. Themizhavu is played by male member and kuzhithalam is played by the female member of the nambiar community.   Q.13 Who was a proponent of Bhakti cult? 1. Nagarjuna 2. Tukaram 3. Tyagaraja 4. Vallabhacharya Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 4 & 3 Ans. C   Q.14 In context with the Madhubani Paintings which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Madhubani painting or Mithila painting is a style of Indian painting, practiced in the Mithila region of Bihar state 2) Painting is done with fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks, using natural dyes and pigments 3) It is characterized by eye-catching geometrical patterns Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q. 15  Which among the following statements regarding Thitambunritham  is/are correct which is a ritual art form of Kerala? 1) The dancer usually carries aloft of 10-3 kgs & carry a lamp 2) It involves only footwork Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A North Kerala has many rich art traditions, of which “Thitambu Nritham” is one. It is mainly performed by Namboothiris of this part of Kerala, and rarely other Braahmanan communities, say for example, Embranthiris. Late Vethiramana Sreedharan Namboodiri could easily be called the “Father of Thitambu Nritham”. Luckily this ritualistic art form has not died out with his withdrawal from the stage. Experts in this field like sri Matamana Sankaran Embranthiri and his disciple Brahmasree Puthumana Govindan Namboothiri are carrying on the great tradition in

HISTORY MCQ SET-3 Read More »

HISTORY MCQ SET 2

Q.1 With reference to Tata Vaidya-string instrument, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) They had a varying number of parallel strings made of fibre or gut. 2) In this sound is produced by the vibration of a string or chord 3) Number of strings are stretched on a box of wood in dulcimer type of instrument Codes: A)  1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The tata vadya is a category of instruments in which sound is produced by the vibration of a string or chord. These vibrations are caused by plucking or by bowing on the string which has been pulled taut. The length of the vibrating string or wire, the degree to which it has been tightened, determines the pitch of the note and also to some extent the duration of the sound.   The tata vadya are divided into two broad categories-the plucked and the bowed, and further subdivided into the fretted and non-fretted variety. The oldest evidence of stringed instruments in our land, however, are harps in the shape of the hunters bow. They had a varying number of parallel strings made of fibre or gut. There used to be one string for each note, plucked either with the fingers or with the plectrum called the kona. Veena was the generic term for stringed instruments referred to in texts: and we have the ekatantri, the sata-tantri veena, etc. The Chitra had seven strings and the Vipanchi nine; the first was played with the fingers and the second with a plectrum.   Representation of these can be found in many sculptures and murals of olden days, as for example, in the Bharhut and Sanchi Stupa, the reliefs of Amaravati and so on. Mention of. Yazh are found in old Tamil texts from the 2nd century A.D. The playing of such instruments was an important part of ritual and ceremonies. As the priests and performers sang, their wives played on instruments.   Another class is of the dulcimer type, where a number of strings are stretched on a box of wood. The best known of these was the sata-tantri veena-the hundred stringed veena. A close relative of this is the Santoor, a very popular instrument still played in Kashmir and other parts of India. A later development of stringed instruments are the fingerboard variety, which were most suited to Raga Sangeet and many of the prevalent instruments of the concert platform, whether fretted or non-fretted, bowed or plucked fall into this category. The great advantage of these instruments is the richness of tone production and continuity of sound. In the finger-board instruments all the required notes are produced on one chord (string or wire) by altering the length of the wire either by pressing it with a finger or a piece of metal or wood. This increase or decrease in the length of the vibrator wire is responsible for the changes in pitches of notes-swaras. Bowed instruments are usually used as an accompaniment to vocal music and are referred to as Geetanuga. They are divided into two broad categories-the upright and the inverted. In the first category the fingerboard is held straight up as in the case of Sarangi and in the second category, that is, in the inverted variety, the board or resonator is held towards the shoulder and the fingerboard dandi is held across the arm of the player as in the case of the Ravanhastaveena, the Banam, the Violin.   Q.2 In context with the musical instrument Kamaicha, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) The whole instrument is one piece of wood 2) Spherical bowl extends into a neck and fingerboard 3) Resonator is covered with leather and the upper portion with wood Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The kamaicha links the sub-continent to Western Asia and Africa and is considered by some scholars to be the oldest instrument, with the exception of the Ravana Hatta or Ravana Hasta Veena. The variety of upright bowed instruments are generally seen in the northern areas of ttie country. In these there are again two varieties, the fretted and the non-fretted.   Q.3 With reference to the Reed instruments, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) In this  reeds are bound together with a gap between them 2) The body of the tube is conical in shape narrow at the blowing end and opening out gradually with a metallic bell 3) Shehnai, Nadaswaram are considered as the Reed instruments Codes: A)  1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D     Q.4 Which among the following musical instruments are correctly matched ? 1) Tata Vadya : Stringed instruments 2)  Ghana Vadya  : Solid instruments which do not require tuning 3) Sushira Vadya  : Wind instruments 4) Avanaddha Vadya : Percussion instruments Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 With reference to Theyyam , which among the following statements are correct ? 1) It is a popular folk theatre form of Kerala 2) It is performed by particular caste to appease and worship the spirits 3) It is distinguished by colourful costume and awe-inspiring headgears Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Theyyam is a traditional and extremely popular folk theatre form of Kerala. The word ‘Theyyam’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Daivam’ meaning God. Hence it is called God’s dance. The tradition of worshipping of spirits of ancestors, folk heroes, and deities of various diseases and ailments can be traced back to ancient times in South India. Theyyam is performed by various castes to appease and worship these spirits. One of the distinguishing features of Theyyam is the colourful costume and awe-inspiring headgears (mudi) nearly 5 to 6 feet high made of arecanut splices, bamboos,

HISTORY MCQ SET 2 Read More »

HISTORY MCQ SET-1

Q.1 In context with the Bharatnatyam, which among the following  statements are correct ? 1) This form of dance has no words but is composed of pure dance sequences characterized by variety of  moods 2) Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya followed by movement & mime 3) Jatiswaram , Shabdam, Varnam & Tillana are the forms of Bharatnatyam Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Bharatnatyam originates in Tamil Nadu which is also referred to as artistic yoga and Natya yoga. The name Bharatnatyam is derived from the word “Bharata” and thus associated with the Natyashastra. Though the style of Bharatnatyam is over two thousand years old, the freshness and richness of its essence has been retained even today. The technique of human movement which Bharatnatyam follows can be traced back to the fifth Century A.D. from sculptural evidence. This classical dance has a mesmerizing effect as it uplifts the dancer and the beholder to a higher level of spiritual consciousness. It is a dancing style that comprises of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya which reflect the real meaning of the Bharatnatyam. Bharatanatyam is arguably the oldest and most traditional classical dance style which seemas a synthesis of philosophy, sculpture, music and literature. This dance got its name from Sage Bharata who wrote the Natya Shastra. Bharatanatyam is an energetic dance from wherein the postures and balanced position, i.e. the weight of the body is placed squarely down the centre of the body. There is emphasis on the striking of the floor with the feet. There are jumps in the air as also pirouettes called bhramaris. There are movements done with the knees contacting the floor. These are called mandi adavus. Bharatanatyam can be performed solo or in a group. The pure dance is called nritta and the expressive is nritya. The solo dancer uses various methods of story-telling to interpret the verses and stories she performs. The person who conducts the recital is called the natatuvanar,, who is generally the guru of the dancer. He or the plays the cymbals called nattuvangam. The other musicians are the vocalist, the mridangist or percussion player, of flutist, a violinist and a veena player. One of the greatest performers of Bharatanatyam has been Balasaraswati who was influential in popularising the dance as much as Rukmini Devi Arundale. Balasaraswati was famous for her soulful renderings of abhinaya or mimetic piece, in which she not only danced but sang as well. The Steps & Performance Bharatanatyam is always performed with the knees of the dancers bent. The dance form emphasizes on the hand movements to convey different kinds of emotions to the spectator. While performing Bharatanatyam, the artist visualizes his/her body as made up of triangles. The steps of the dance are based upon a balanced distribution of body weight and firm positions of the lower limbs, allowing the hands to cut into a line, to flow around the body, or to take positions that enhance the basic form. In order to perform Bharatnatyam, the artist should have the knowledge of the numerous subtle features of the dance style.     Four Techniques: Karanas Described in Natya Shastra, Karanas are defined as the 108 key transitional movements of Bharatanatyam that also feature in other classical da nce forms of India. Karana is a Sanskrit word, meaning ‘doing’. Classical dancer Padma Subramanyam is well known for her interpretation of Karanas, which predominantly includes the leg, hip, body and arm movements complemented by hasta mudras, as described in the Natya Shastra. Hastas The use of expressive hand gestures is a highlighting feature of Bharatanatyam. As the name suggests, hastas are the wide variety of hand symbols used by the performer. Some of the most well known hand gestures of the dance form include Anjali, which is used as a symbol of salutation, when a person greets his/her fellow dancer. Hastas are broadly divided into two types – Asamyukta and Samyukta. Adavus Adavus is defined as a series of steps in Bharatanatyam. The execution of the steps is different from style to style. The 108 principals of adavus are recognized by most schools of Bharatanatyam. As many as 60 adavus are used by many professional dancers. Jathis is the combination of adavus and forms the Nritta passages in a Bharatanatyam performance. Bhedas , Eye  & Neck Movements Bharatanatyam is considered incomplete without bhedas and the expressive eye movements of the performer. Neck and eye movements are used extensively in the dance form. The shiro bheda (head movements) comprises of Sama, Udhvahita, Adhomukha, Alolita,Dhutam, Kampitam, Paravruttam, Utkshiptam and Parivahitam.   Theme of Bharatnatyam Bharatnatyam is a solo, feminine type of a dance, which is tender and erotic. The basic theme is love, where the female dancers usually perform as a devotion to the Supreme Being; or love of a mother for child. It epitomizes the adoration of lovers separated and reunited. This dance is considered to be a fire dance, where there is a mysterious display of the abstract element of fire in the human body. Technique of Bharatnatyam Among the various styles of Bharatnatyam the Pandanallur and the Vazhuvoor are more significant. Pandanallur style is characterized by its deep sitting positions; its slow Lasya padams, and difficult standing positions. Vazhuvoor is characterized by a static posture to break the monotony with rhythmical variety.   The technique of Bharatnatyam consists of Natya, Nritta and Nritya. Natya is the dramatic art which is the language of gestures, poses and mimes. Nritta includes the rhythmic and repetitive elements. The Nritya is a combination of Nritta and Natya. Abhinaya also is another technique. It is subtle with more spontaneous expressions.   The theme of Bharatnatyam comes alive through the zealous performances of the dancers. It is the combination of technique, styles and Abhinaya. It starts with an invocation to Lord Gnana Sabesar of Vazhuvoor. The themes are personalized depending on the dancer. The dancers need to posses ten essential attributes

HISTORY MCQ SET-1 Read More »

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-17

Q.1 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India 2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour 3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House 4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 4 C)  2 only D) 1 & 4 Ans.A   Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as “Zero Hour”. It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.   Q.2 Which one among the following statements regarding Half-an-Hour Discussion in the Lok Sabha is correct? A) The Speaker may allot Half-an-Hour on three sittings in a week for raising discussions on matter of sufficient public importance B) Half-an-Hour discussion is held every day in the House followed by a statement by the concerned Minister C) Half-an-Hour discussion has to be completed by voting D) Half-an-Hour discussion is taken up at 2:00 PM in the House Ans.A   (1) The Speaker may allot half an hour on three sittings in a week, for raising discussion on a matter of sufficient public importance which has been the subject of a recent question, oral or written, and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact.   (2) A member wishing to raise a matter shall give notice in writing to the Secretary-General three days in advance of the day on which the matter is desired to be raised, and shall shortly specify the point or points that he wishes to raise:   Provided that the notice shall be accompanied by an explanatory note stating the reasons for raising discussion on the matter in question: Provided further that if a notice is signed by more than one member it shall be deemed to have been given by the first signatory only:   Provided further that the Speaker may with the consent of the Minister concerned waive the requirement concerning the period of notice   (3) The Speaker shall decide whether the matter is of sufficient public importance to be put down for discussion, and may not admit a notice which, in his opinion, seeks to revise the policy of Government.   (4) If more than two notices have been received and admitted by the Speaker, the Secretary-General shall hold a ballot with a view to draw two notices and the notices shall be put down in the order in which they were received in point of time: Provided that if any matter put down for discussion on a particular day is not disposed of on that day it shall not be set down for any other day, unless the member so desires, in which case it shall be included in the ballot for the next available day.   (5) There shall be no formal motion before the House for voting. The member who has given notice may make a short statement and the *1[members who have previously intimated to the Speaker may ask a question for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact. Thereafter, the Minister shall reply shortly:] Provided that not more than four members who have previously intimated to the Secretary-General may be permitted to ask a question each for the purpose of further elucidating any matter of fact.   Explanation.- A member wishing to ask a question shall make such request in writing before the commencement of the sitting at which the discussion is to take place. If such requests are received from more than four members, a ballot shall be held to determine the names of first four members who may be permitted to ask a question each.   Q.3 Consider the following statements on adjournment motion in the Lok Sabha: 1. If objection to leave being granted is taken, the Speaker shall ensure that not less than fifty members rise to support the motion for leave of the House being granted 2. The motion that ‘the House do now adjourn’ shall be taken up at 16:00 hours or earlier if the Speaker so directs 3.The Speaker shall prescribe the time limit for speeches 4. If the motion is withdrawn after its discussion, the House shall adjourn immediately Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 1,2 & 3 D) 1,2 & 4 Ans.D   The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House.   The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.   The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance

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POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-16

Q.1 Consider the following statements : The draft constitution as well as the constitution of India adopted by the constituent assembly on 26 November 1949 were in both English & Hindi As per the constitution of India Parliament by law provides others all proceedings in the supreme court shall be in both English & Hindi Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.A As per the constitution of India Parliament by law provides others all proceedings in the supreme court shall be in English.   Q.2 Consider the following statements : In part IX of the constitution of India there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct elections in every Panchayat The Eleventh schedule of the constitution distributes powers between the state legislature & the Panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India & states Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D   3 Consider the following statements : The governor may reserve a bill for consideration of the president of India The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinance issued in the state at any time Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.C   Q.4 Consider the following g statements : In the parliamentary system of India if the President of India returns a bill for reconsideration of the houses & both the houses pass the bill again without any amendment & the bill is again presented to the President, President has the power to withhold his assent from the bill As per the constitution of India, Union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok sabha & Rajya sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D Union council of ministers is responsible to the Lok sabha In the parliamentary system of India if the President of India returns a bill for reconsideration of the houses & both the houses pass the bill again without any amendment, then the bill will be passed.   Q.5 Consider the following statements : For a person to be eligible for election for election as the Vice President , he must be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha No person has ever been re-elected as the vice president of India for a second term Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   6 Consider the following statements : The annual financial statement is caused to be laid by the union finance minister before both the houses of Parliament General discussion of the annual finance statement takes place only in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.7 Consider the following statements : A chief metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of death A metropolitan magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life Which of the statements given above are correct? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.C   Q.8 Which of the following statements is not correct ? A) Telephone tapping infracts article 21 of the constitution of India unless permitted by law B) Article 22 of constitution of India provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest C) Refusal of grant bail in a murder case without reasonable ground would amount to deprivation of personal liberty under artice 23 of constitution of India D) Article 24 of the constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories or mines or in any other hazardous jobs Ans.C              

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POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-15

Q.1 Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour: 1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure. 2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure. 3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation. 4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure. The correct statements is/are: A) 1 & 2 only. B) 3 & 4 only. C) 2 & 3 only. D) 1 & 4 only. Ans. D Calling attention motion is mentioned in the rules of procedure but not Zero hour. Both are Indian innovation.   Q.2 The role of ministry of Parliamentary affairs among other things, is to : A) conduct of the business of house B) fix dates of summoning & prorogation  of the two house of parliament C) see the matters pertaining to parliamentary committees D) advise speaker in the well of house Ans.B Functions: •  Renders secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. •  Constitutes consultative committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during and between sessions. •  Pursues other ministries for prompt and proper implementation of assurances given by ministers in the Parliament. •  Sets dates for summoning and prorogation of the two houses of Parliament: dissolution of Lok Sabha, President’s Address to Parliament •  Plans and coordinates legislative and other official business in both houses •  Acts as liaison with leaders and whips of various parties and groups represented in Parliament •  Sets government’s stand on private members’ bills and resolutions •  Advises to ministries on procedural and other parliamentary matters •  Organises of Youth Parliament Competitions in schools and colleges throughout the country •  Deals with salaries and allowances of officers of Parliament and salary, allowances, and pensions of members of Parliament, as well as for Leaders of the Opposition   Q.3 Which among the following are the eligibility conditions for considering man booker prize ? 1. It must be a full length novel 2. It must be written by a citizen of the commonwealth or the republic of Ireland 3. It must be published for the first time in the year of the prize 4. It may be self published novel published in any language (with English translation) Codes: A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1 & 3 D) 2 & 4 Ans. C Any full length novel (or at least, a long novella) written by a citizen of the Commonwealth, the Republic of Ireland or Zimbabwe. * No English translation of a book written originally in any other language. * No self-published books where the author is the publisher or where a company has been specifically setup to publish that book. * The books have to have a scheduled publication date between 1 October 2009 and 30 September 2010.   Q.4 The survey of India & National Atlas & Thematic Mapping organisation fall under jurisdiction of : A) Ministry of Science & technology B) Ministry of Earth Science C) Ministry of Defence D) Ministry of Communication & Information technology Ans. A   Q.5 In the new consumer price index data, which among the following group of commodities has been assigned highest weightage ? A) Education, transport & medical care B) Food, beverage & tobacco C) Fuel & light D) Clothing & footwear Ans. B   Q.6 The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in: A) Constitution of India. B) Rules of the house. C) A separate Parliamentary Statute. D) None of the above Ans. C   Q.7 The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by: 1. Any court of law. 2. Lok Sabha. 3. President of India. A) 1 & 2 only. B) 2 & 3 only. C) 2 only. D) None of these. Ans. D It Can be questioned by speaker of Lok Sabha.   Q.8 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill. 1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament. 2. President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses. A) 1 only. B) 2 only. C) Both are correct D) None of the above Ans. B   Q.9 The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by: A) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament. B) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament. C) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures. D) By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment. Ans. A It is mentioned in 2nd Schedule  

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