SCIENCE MCQS

Q.1 Recently which among the following state has adopted fly ash utilization policy ? A) Maharashtra B) Punjab C) Karnataka D) Tamil Nadu Ans. A Fly ash is a fine, glass powder by-product recovered from gases of burning coal in thermal power plants during production of electricity. They are micron sized earth elements primarily consisting silica, alumina and iron. Fly ash causes air pollution. It can also contaminate water and soil systems. The wet disposal of Fly ash results in leaching of toxic heavy metals in ground water system. Q.2 DNA Index System (DIS) allows generation of DNA profiles from which of the following samples : 1. Saliva 2. Blood strains 3. Buccal Swabs Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA typing) is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals, thereby being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints (hence the alternate name for the technique). DNA profiling should not be confused with full genome sequencing. DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture A common method of collecting a reference sample is the use of a buccal swab, which is easy, non-invasive and cheap. When this is not available (e.g. because a court order is needed but not obtainable) other methods may need to be used to collect a sample of blood, saliva, semen, or other appropriate fluid or tissue from personal items (e.g. a toothbrush, razor) or from stored samples (e.g. banked sperm or biopsy tissue). Samples obtained from blood relatives (related by birth, not marriage) can provide an indication of an individual’s profile, as could human remains that had been previously profiled. Using PCR technology, DNA analysis is widely applied to determine genetic family relationships such as paternity, maternity, siblingship and other kinships. Familial DNA searching (sometimes referred to as “Familial DNA” or “Familial DNA Database Searching”) is the practice of creating new investigative leads in cases where DNA evidence found at the scene of a crime (forensic profile) strongly resembles that of an existing DNA profile (offender profile) in a state DNA database but there is not an exact match. Q.3 HIMANSH often in the news is : A) Glaciological research station B) Submarine vessel C) Micro satellite D) Nuclear Vessel Ans. A A high altitude glaciological research station in Himalaya called Himansh (meaning a slice of ice) began functioning above 13,500 ft (4000 m) in a remote region in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh. The station houses instruments to quantify glacier melting and its relation to changing climate. It will also serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners (TLS) and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) for undertaking surveys. Q.4 How recently developed Zika replicon system will be helpful in developing vaccine for Zika virus ? 1. It will deteriorate the structure of the virus by deleting some of its genes 2. Replicons are the segments of viral genome that are dependent of the cellular chromosome 3. They will be used to locate portions of the viral molecule that block or halt viral replication Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. C Replicons are basically segments of viral genome that can replicate on their own, independent of the cellular chromosome. It has also become important to deal with Zika virus which is spreading rapidly and behaves differently than other viruses as it can be transmitted sexually and is associated with microcephaly and Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). Q.5 In context with the news what is Digishala ? A) 24 hour government TV channel for cashless lessons B) TV series to be launched for cashless lessons C) A short film based on cashless lessons D) None of the above Ans. A Q.6 Jaguar DARIN III often in the news is : A) Twin seat aircraft B) Anti tank missile C) Rocket launcher D) Submarine vessel Ans. A Q.7 What is Urja Ganga, that has been recently in news ? A) It is a mission to clean holy river by 2020 B) It is a project of Gas pipeline to provide cooking gas C) It aims to reduce pollutants from Ganga river D) None of the above Ans. B Q.8 Recently in the news there was a term “Selfie Stick”. What is this ? A) A micro satellite B) A printer C) A Graphene transistor D) A newly launched i-phone Ans. A The micro-satellite Banxing-2 is roughly the size of a desktop printer and the media has nicknamed “Selfie Stick”. It weighs 47 kilogrammes. Micro satellites weigh around 500 to 100 kilograms. They are usually cheaper, faster and more advanced than traditional satellites. The commercial potential has attracted much attention from businesses. Q.9 Recently Mitochondrial replacement therapy has been in news, consider the following statements : 1. It involves invitro & invivo fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria 2. Through this technique embryo remains free from all the defects Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It involves invitro fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria 2nd statement is fabricated statement, as it can’t be free from all the defects Mitochondrial replacement (MRT, sometimes called mitochondrial donation) is a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which the future baby’s mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. The two most common techniques in mitochondrial donation are pronuclear transfer and maternal spindle transfer. In 2015 MRT was made legal in

Q.1 With reference to the news, what is INSV MADHEI ? A) Rocket launcher B) A Coast Guard C) Sail training boat D) Shoulder launched surface to air missile Ans. C INSV Mhadei is a sail training boat of the Indian Navy. The boat has two mainsails, two Genoa’s, a stay-sail, one try-sail and two gennaker’s. She is also fitted with satellite communications and electronic navigation systems – A second boat in this class, INS Tarini, was ordered in 2016 and is expected to be inducted into active service by March 2017 . The boat is being built by M/s Aquariues ship yard Pvt Ltd Q.2 Recently first International Agrobiodiversity Congress has been inaugurated by the Prime minister of India. With reference to this conference consider the following statements : 1.It has been organized by the Ministry of Environment & forests  2. Emission of methane gas through the agriculture activities is one of the main concern of this conference 3. Diversified agriculture,Management of gene banks are the main emphasis of this conference Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D  Both centre and the states have an important role to play.§ – Now the government is working towards organic farming, integrated pest management, proving soil health cards which are towards promoting ecological framing and protection of bio diversity. This way farmers risk in agriculture can be minimised and income can be improved along with maintaining soil health. § Through diversified agriculture, the farmers risk in crop farming is reduced § – The Conference will lead to discussion and knowledge sharing on issues for efficient management of gene banks, science-led innovations in genetic resources, crop diversification, issues relating to quarantine, bio safety and bio security and intellectual property rights. – Emphasis on Diversified Agriculture §Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first International Agro biodiversity Congress where 900 delegates from 60 countries participated. The conference was organised by the Indian Society of Plant Genetic Resources and Biodiversity International, a CGIAR Research Centre headquartered in Rome, Italy. Q.3 Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles? A) Saffron B) Cinnamon C) Olive oil D) Ajinomoto Ans. D Q.4 In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects? 1. Prevention of browning 2. Increase in sour taste 3. Destruction of thiamine 4. Preservation of thiamine Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 & 4 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 2 & 4 Ans. C Q.5 Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants? A) Nerium B) Neem C) Bourgainvillea D) Callotropis Ans. C Q.6 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1.Patola saris : Gujarat 2. Kullu shawl : Himachal Pradesh 3. Pattu sarees : Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the vodes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D Q.7 In context with the gravitation waves, consider the following statements : 1. They generally propagate as waves greater than the speed of light 2. Enigmaic sources are the strongest sources of the gravitational waves Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B They are among enigmatic objects in our universe like black holes, supernova, neutron stars and Big Bang. They travel outward from the source at the speed of light. Q.8 With reference to the LIDAR (Light Detection & ranging) consider the following statements : 1. LIDAR uses ultraviolet & visible light only to detect the objects 2. They can target a wide range of materials except non-metallic objects Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Lidar uses ultraviolet, visible, or near infrared light to image objects. It can target a wide range of materials, including non-metallic objects, rocks, rain, chemical compounds, aerosols, clouds and even single molecules.A narrow laser-beam can map physical features with very high resolutions; for example, an aircraft can map terrain at 30-centimetre (12 in) resolution or better. Lidar has been used extensively for atmospheric research and meteorology. Lidar instruments fitted to aircraft and satellites carry out surveying and mapping – a recent example being the U.S. Geological Survey Experimental Advanced Airborne Research Lidar.NASA has identified lidar as a key technology for enabling autonomous precision safe landing of future robotic and crewed lunar-landing vehicles. Wavelengths vary to suit the target: from about 10 micrometers to the UV (approximately 250 nm). Typically light is reflected via backscattering. Different types of scattering are used for different lidar applications: most commonly Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, Raman scattering, and fluorescence. Based on different kinds of backscattering, the lidar can be accordingly called Rayleigh Lidar, Mie Lidar, Raman Lidar, Na/Fe/K Fluorescence Lidar, and so on. Suitable combinations of wavelengths can allow for remote mapping of atmospheric contents by identifying wavelength-dependent changes in the intensity of the returned signal. In general there are two kinds of lidar detection schemes: “incoherent” or direct energy detection (which is principally an amplitude measurement) and coherent detection (which is best for Doppler, or phase sensitive measurements). Coherent systems generally use optical heterodyne detection, which, being more sensitive than direct detection, allows them to operate at a much lower power but at the expense of more complex transceiver requirements. Lidar is popularly used to make high-resolution maps, with applications in geodesy, geomatics, archaeology, geography, geology, geomorphology, seismology, forestry, atmospheric physics, laser guidance, airborne laser swath mapping (ALSM), and laser altimetry. Lidar sometimes is called laser scanning and 3D scanning, with terrestrial, airborne, and mobile applications. Q.9 With reference to the fast neutron reactor

Q.1 Which among the following is/are the features that characterizes the Pioneer species ? 1. Most of them are hardy species with non-photosynthetic activity 2. The plants that are often pioneer species tend to be insect-pollinated 3. Orchids, lichens & Algae are the examples of the pioneer species Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D Examples of the plants and organism that colonize such areas are pioneer species: • Barren sand – lyme grass (Leymus arenarius), sea couch grass (Agropyron pungens), Marram grass (Ammophila breviligulata) • Salt water – green algae, marine eel grass (Zostera spp.), pickleweed (Salicornia virginica), and cordgrass (hybrid Spartina × townsendii) and (Spartina anglica). • Clear water – algae, mosses, freshwater eel grass (Vallisneria americana). • Solidified lava flows – in Hawaii: swordfern (Polystichum munitum), ‘ōhi‘a lehua (Metrosideros polymorpha), ‘ohelo (Vaccinium reticulatum) and ‘āma‘u (Sadleria cyatheoides);[3] on Surtsey: lichen (Stereocaulon vesuvianum and Placopsis gelida) and moss (Racomitriumericoides);[4] green algae • Disturbed areas such as construction sites, road cuttings and verges, cultivated lands – Buddleia davidii, Nettles[clarification needed], Tagetes minuta, Bidens pilosa, Argemone mexicana • Bare clay – Orchids • Mountains – Lichens Pioneer species are hardy species which are the first to colonize previously disrupted or damaged ecosystems, beginning a chain of ecological succession that ultimately leads to a more biodiverse steady-state ecosystem Since some uncolonized land may have thin, poor quality soils with few nutrients, pioneer species are often hardy plants with adaptations such as long roots, root nodes containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and leaves that employ transpiration. They are often photosynthetic plants, as no other source of energy (such as other species) except light energy is often available in the early stages of succession, thus making it less likely for a pioneer species to be non-photosynthetic. The plants that are often pioneer species also tend to be wind-pollinated rather than insect-pollinated, Pioneering fauna will colonize an area only after flora and fungi have inhabited the area. Soil fauna, ranging from microscopic protists to larger invertebrates, have a role in soil formation and nutrient cycling. Bacteria and fungi are the most important groups in the breakdown of organic detritus left by primary producing plants such as skeletal soil, moss and algae. Though vertebrates in general would not be considered pioneer species, there are exceptions Pioneer species can also be found in secondary succession, such as an established ecosystem being reduced by an event such as: a forest fire, deforestation, or clearing; quickly colonizing open spaces which previously supported vegetation. Common examples of the plants in such areas include • Raspberry – Rubus spp. • Heaths – Ericaceae spp. • Graminoids, forbs, and wildflowers – native, introduced, and invasive species: such as fire dependent seed, cone, and resprouter chaparral genera. Q.2 Which among the following plants is/are classified under the category of aquatic plants ? 1. Duckweed 2. Water Hyacinth 3. Lotus Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D One of the largest aquatic plants in the world is the Amazon water lily; one of the smallest is the minute duckweed. Many small aquatic animals use plants like duckweed for a home, or for protection from predators, but areas with more vegetation are likely to have more predators. Some other familiar examples of aquatic plants might include floating heart, water lily, lotus, and water hyacinth. Some aquatic plants are used by humans as a food source. Examples include wild rice (Zizania), water caltrop (Trapa natans), Chinese water chestnut (Eleocharis dulcis), Indian lotus (Nelumbo nucifera), water spinach (Ipomoea aquatica), and watercress (Rorippa nasturtium-aquaticum). Q.3 Which among the following equipment(s) comes under the classification of energy efficient schemes ? 1. LED bulbs 2. Fans 3.LED tube lights 4. Street lights Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) Only 1 & 3 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Solar water pump sets : At present, solar water pumping system market in India is subsidy driven. Non-subsidized pumps accounts for marginal share in the market. High capital cost is the major hurdle in the growth of solar water pumping system market. Regardless of subsidies provided by the government, solar pumps are still unaffordable for small farmers due to their high upfront cost in comparison to diesel and electric pumps. With this background, EESL intends to develop a programme to provide a reliable source of supply to agricultural pump sets which are currently being operated by diesel generators or through grid supply by way of solar mini grids. By developing such renewable energy based grids, farmers will be able to receive considerable revenue on monthly basis by selling the excess power to the grid for a period of 25 years. The benefits of the programme to the farmers includes social emancipation as well as contribution to the society by means of water conservation Q.4 With reference to the news there was a term “TERM CELLS”, What is this ? A) It is an alternative of Stem cells that can differentiate into specialized cells B) It is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications C) These are the tiny cells in the form of pins that are used in laptops, torches, etc. D) It has been set up by the government to combat illegal trafficking Ans. B Telecom Enforcement Resource and Monitoring (TERM), formerly known as Vigilance Telecom Monitoring (VTM), is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications (DoT) TERM is made up of 34 Cells in India’s 22 telecom circles and 10 large telecom districts,[2] each headed by a Senior Administrative Grade (SAG) level officer, termed as Deputy Director General (DDG).The main functions of TERM Cells are vigilance, monitoring and security of the network.Apart from this, TERM Cells also operate the Central Monitoring System (CMS), a clandestine mass electronic surveillance

Q.1 Which among the following are the sources of Bio-asphalt ? 1. Natural tree 2. Gum resins 3. Molasses 4. Waste of canola oil Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D It is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources Non-petroleum based bitumen binders can be colored, which can reduce the temperatures of road surfaces and reduce the Urban heat islands. Bitumen can also be made from waste vacuum tower bottoms produced in the process of cleaning used motor oils, which are normally burned or dumped into land fills. Q.2 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the coliform bacteria? 1. These are present in large numbers in the feces of cold-blooded animals 2. These are restricted to the aquatic environment 3. These are the common indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Coliform bacteria are defined as rod-shaped Gram-negative non-spore forming and motile or non-motile bacteria which can ferment lactosewith the production of acid and gas when incubated at 35–37°C. They are a commonly used indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water. Coliforms can be found in the aquatic environment, in soil and on vegetation; they are universally present in large numbers in the feces of warm-blooded animals. Whilst coliforms themselves are not normally causes of serious illness, they are easy to culture, and their presence is used to indicate that other pathogenic organisms of fecal origin may be present. Such pathogens include disease-causing bacteria, viruses, or protozoa and many multicellular parasites. Coliform procedures are performed in aerobic or anaerobic conditions. Q.3 With reference to the S-band spectrum, consider the following statements : 1. It is part of the microwave & Infrared band of the electromagnetic spectrum 2. It is standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, 3. The S band is used by all communications satellites to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B The S band is part of the microwave band of the electromagnetic spectrum. It is defined by an IEEE standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, crossing the conventional boundary between UHF and SHF at 3.0 GHz. The S band is used by weather radar, surface ship radar, and some communications satellites, especially those used by NASA to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. The 10 cm radar short-band ranges roughly from 1.55 to 5.2 GHz. In some countries, S band is used for Direct-to-Home satellite television (unlike similar services in most countries, which use Ku band). The frequency typically allocated for this service is 2.5 to 2.7 GHz (LOF 1.570 GHz). Q.4 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bio banks ? 1. It is an organized collection of only human biological material for research purposes 2. Population-based biobanks need particular hospital affiliation to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It as “an organized collection of human biological material and associated information stored for one or more research purposes”. Collections of plant, animal, microbe, and other nonhuman materials may also be described as biobanks but in some discussions the term is reserved for human specimens. Disease-oriented biobanks usually have a hospital affiliation through which they collect samples representing a variety of diseases, perhaps to look for biomarkers affiliated with disease.Population-based biobanks need no particular hospital affiliation because they take samples from large numbers of all kinds of people, perhaps to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility in a general population. Q.5 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Clonal Seed production ? 1. The genotype of the embryo & the resulting plant will be same as the seed parent 2. It is a type of reproduction in which seeds are formed without union of gamets Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.6 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Manjra river ? 1. Teru 2. Gharni 3. Lendi Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Manjiira is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 metres (2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River. It flows on the Balaghat plateau along with its tributaries: Terna, Tawarja and Gharni. The other three tributaries of Manjara are Manyad, Teru and Lendi which flow on the northern plains. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.7 Protein extract of which of the following is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds ? 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Algae Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to edible unicellular microorganisms. The biomass or protein extract from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria may be used as an ingredient or a substitute for protein-rich foods, and is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds. Single-cell proteins develop when microbes ferment waste materials (including wood, straw, cannery, and food-processing wastes, residues from alcohol production, hydrocarbons, or human and animal excreta).[17] The problem

Q.1 For which of the following products ISO certification is mandatory ? 1. Thermometers 2. Drinking water 3. LPG Cylinders Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety Q.2 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the 2,4-D ( 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) ? 1.  In agriculture, it is the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing of crops apart from weeds 2. Mostly grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected by this herbicide Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (usually called 2,4-D) is an organic compound with the chemical formula C8H6Cl2O3. It is a systemic herbicide which selectively kills most broadleaf weeds by causing uncontrolled growth in them, but leaves most grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected.  It can be found in numerous commercial lawn herbicide mixtures, and is widely used as a weedkiller on cereal crops, pastures, and orchards. 2,4-D was one of the ingredients in Agent Orange, a herbicide widely used during the Vietnam War 2,4-D is primarily used as a selective herbicide which kills many terrestrial and aquatic broadleaf weeds, but not grasses.  It acts by mimicking the action of the plant growth hormone auxin, which results in uncontrolled growth and eventually death in susceptible plants  In agriculture, it was the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing weeds but not crops.  It is often used by government agencies to control the spread of invasive, noxious and non-native weed species and prevent them from crowding out native species, and also to control many poisonous weeds such as poison ivy and poison oak Men who work with 2,4-D are at risk for abnormally shaped sperm and thus fertility problems; Residue levels in kidney were the highest 2,4-D is a synthetic auxin, which is a class of plant hormones. Q.3 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the subatomic particles Baryon ? 1. These are the quark-based particles that participate in the strong interaction 2. They are similar in functioning as compared to the lepton & Mesons 3. Protons & neutrons are the only baryons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C A baryon is a composite subatomic particle made up of three quarks (a triquark, as distinct from mesons, which are composed of one quark and one antiquark). Baryons and mesons belong to the hadron family of particles, which are the quark-based particles. As quark-based particles, baryons participate in the strong interaction, whereas leptons, which are not quark-based, do not. The most familiar baryons are the protons and neutrons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe. Electrons (the other major component of the atom) are leptons. Each baryon has a corresponding antiparticle (antibaryon) where quarks are replaced by their corresponding antiquarks. For example, a proton is made of two up quarks and one down quark; and its corresponding antiparticle, the antiproton, is made of two up antiquarks and one down antiquark. Q.4 Which among the following is/are the examples of the e-liquids that are used in e-cigarettes ? 1. Water 2. Nicotine 3. Glycerine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D An electronic cigarette or e-cigarette is a handheld electronic device that tries to create the feeling of tobacco smoking. It works by heating a liquid to generate an aerosol, commonly called a “vapor”, that the user inhales. Using e-cigarettes is sometimes called vaping. The liquid in the e-cigarette, called e-liquid, is usually made of nicotine, propylene glycol, glycerine, and flavorings. Not all e-liquids contain nicotine The health risks of e-cigarettes are uncertain. They are likely safer than tobacco cigarettes, but the long-term health effects are not known They can help some smokers quit. When used by non-smokers, e-cigarettes can lead to nicotine addiction, and there is concern that children could start smoking after using e-cigarettes  Less serious adverse effects include throat and mouth irritation, vomiting, nausea, and coughing The majority of toxic chemicals found in tobacco smoke are absent in e-cigarette aerosol. Those present are mostly below 1% corresponding levels in tobacco smoke The emergence of e-cigarettes has given cannabis smokers a new method of inhaling cannabinoids. E-cigarettes differ from traditional marijuana cigarettes in several respects. It is assumed that vaporizing cannabinoids at lower temperatures is safer because it produces smaller amounts of toxic substances than the hot combustion of a marijuana cigarette E-liquid is the mixture used in vapor products such as e-cigarettes and generally consists of propylene glycol, glycerin, water, nicotine, and flavorings Smoking a traditional cigarette yields between 0.5 and 1.5 mg of nicotine, but the nicotine content of the cigarette is only weakly correlated with the levels of nicotine in the smoker’s bloodstream  Nicotine in tobacco smoke is absorbed into the bloodstream rapidly, and e-cigarette vapor is relatively slow in this regard. The concentration of nicotine in e-liquid ranges up to 36 mg/Ml Q.5 Which among the following is/are true in context with the 5-star rated celing fans ? 1. These are 50% more energy efficient as compared to the conventional fans 2. These are rated at 75 watts as compared to earlier fans at 50 watts Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D)

Q.1 With reference to the “Polargap Project” ,consider the following statements : 1. It is an international mission to capture data about the Earth’s electrical & magnetic field 2. This project is largely funded by the World bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only  1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D PolarGAP is an ambitious international mission to capture new and critical data about the Earth’s global gravity field.  Innovative radar systems and Lidar technologies will also be deployed from Twin Otter aircraft to fill the ‘data gap’ in measurements of surface elevation over the South Pole region south of 83.5°. Two earth observing satellite missions (GOCE and CryoSat 2) mounted by the European Space Agency (ESA) revolutionised scientists’ ability to ‘map’ the Earth’s global gravity field and monitor how Earth’s ice fields are responding to global change.  However, because GOCE’s orbit did not cross the Poles there is a data gap at the South Pole. The PolarGAP project will collect new gravity data and combine them with datasets from other Antarctic missions to build the first accurately constrained global gravity model. This is essential as global gravity data provide unique information on mass distribution and transport in the Earth System, linked to processes and changes in the Solid Earth, hydrology, cryosphere, oceans and atmosphere. Key applications of gravity data include geodetic studies (levelling and mapping), navigation (GPS/GLONASS) and satellite orbit planning. Q.2 Recently environment minister inaugurates advanced system of air quality  “SAFAR”. With reference to this project consider the following statements : 1. It will monitor all the weather parameters like temperature, wind speed & wind direction  2. The system will also monitor existence of Benzene, Methane & Toluene Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only  1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Science& Technology, Earth Sciences; Environment, Forest & Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of- the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting)at ChandniChowkin Delhi today. The giant true colour LED display gives out real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding alongwith 72-hour advance forecast. The system, first of its kind in the country, was developed indigenously in record time by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD). The minister said based on the Air Quality Index on a particular day, Health advisory and related precaution will be notified to prepare citizens well in advance. Dr. Harsh Vardhan, further added that in addition to monitoring and forecasting of regular air quality and weather parameters, the ChandniChowk air quality station will also measure sun’s UV-Index and will provide measurement of online automatic ultrafine particles PM1 and Mercury, both of which have direct relevance to human health. Based on UVI, skin advisories will be issued on display. “Our mission model project SAFAR is implemented in four cities of India – Delhi, Pune, Mumbai and Ahmedabad as an operational service. Accordingto a preliminary economic assessment of the benefits of the system, if 5% of people suffering from air-pollution related diseases take advantage of the advisories and precautionsin Delhi alone, it would result in a saving of nearly Rs. 2,500 crores in terms of health-related cost benefit,” said Dr Harsh Vardhan, addressing a large gathering at Town Hall in ChandniChowk. The system will be an integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi and will strengthen the existing air quality network of SAFAR, Central Pollution Control Board and Delhi Pollution Control Committee. SAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes. It will also lead to better understanding of linkages among emissions, weather, pollution and climate. It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed and wind direction. In addition to regular air quality parameters like PM2.5, PM10, Sulfur Dioxide, Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene. Besides health, SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture, aviation, infrastructure, disaster management skill, tourism and many others, which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather. Q.3  Which of the following best describes “Global Green Bond Partnership” sometimes seen in news ? A) This partnership will spread catchment area over 68.9 sq km to provide water for irrigation to cities, states regions. B) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual scientists to increase forest cover . C) This partnership will support efforts of cities, states regions , corporations, private companies to accelerate issuance of green bonds D) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual scientists to provide precious water for paddy crops Ans. C The Global Green Bond Partnership (GGBP) launched at the Global Climate Action Summit (GCAS). This new partnership will support efforts of sub-national entities such as cities, states, and regions, corporations and private companies, and financial institutions to accelerate the issuance of green bonds. The founding members of the Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP include the World Bank, IFC – a member of the World Bank Group, Amundi,  European Investment Bank, Climate Bonds Initiative, Ceres, ICLEI – Local Governments for Sustainability, Global Covenant of Mayors for Climate & Energy (GCoM) and the Low Emissions Development Strategies Global Partnership (LEDS GP). Q.4 Currently India is a member of which among the following organizations / groups ? 1. Missile Technology Control Regime 2. Australia Group 3. Wassenaar Arrangement 4. Nuclear Suppler Group Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 2 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans.  D Some countries are opposing the Indian entry into NSG because India has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Q.5 With reference to the news

Q.1 Consider the following : 1. Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper 2. Macro encapsulation device for treatment of Diabetes 3. Smartphone based Camera Sensor Which among the above projects have been developed  under the Imprint-2 Initiative ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. B Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper, Smartphone based Camera Sensor- are the projects of IMPRINT INITIATIVE For details of the projects , open the link : Q.2 Which among the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status ? 1. Blue pottery of Jaipur 2. Tirupati ladoos 3. Mahabaleshwar Strawberry 4. Nagpur Orange Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) 2 & 4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.3 Which of the following best describes the term “Mobilise Your City” sometimes seen in news ? A) It is an initiative to support three Indian cities to reduce Green House Gas emissions B) It is a part of Swacch Bharat Mission to make Indian cities clean C) It is the Heat Action Plan adopted in Climate Change Conference to keep global average temperature below 20 C D) It is an initiative to support Indian cities to reduce atmospheric pollution as a part of health initiative Ans. A India and France sign an implementation agreement on “MOBILISE YOUR CITY” (MYC) European Union agrees to Euro 3.5 million for investments and technical assistance within the Mobilise Your City (MYC) programme in India. MYC aims at supporting three pilot cities viz. Nagpur, Kochi and Ahmedabad for reduction of Green House Gas (GHG) emissions related to urban transport. Q.4 With reference to the PISA (Programme For International Student Assessment) , consider the following statements : 1. PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by UNICEF (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund ) 2. The test is carried out once in every two years Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only  1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by OECD The test is carried out once in every three years The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) is a worldwide study by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in member and non-member nations intended to evaluate educational systems by measuring 15-year-old school pupils’ scholastic performance on mathematics, science, and reading. It was first performed in 2000 and then repeated every three years. Its aim is to provide comparable data with a view to enabling countries to improve their education policies and outcomes. It measures problem solving and cognition. The 2015 version of the test was published on 6 December 2016 Q.5 With reference to O-Smart scheme consider the following statements : 1. It is the Earth Ministry’s scheme to address Ocean development activities 2. The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1700 crores Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only  1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1623 crores Q.6 Which among the following are mandatory to mention on the label of the food items  as per regulations of Food Safety & Standards Regulations Act,2018 ? 1.Trans fats 2. Sugar 3. Salt 4. Genetically Engineered Goods / ingredients derived from GMO 5. Folic acid Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) 1,4,5 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. B The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) on August 17, 2018 constituted a group of experts from health and nutrition sector to look into the issue of food labelling. The expert panel will be headed by B Sesikeran, former director of National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) and comprises Hemalatha and Dr Nikhil Tandon. The panel will study in detail the concerns of the industry and make recommendations. The announcement regarding the constitution of the Committee was made by FSSAI CEO Pawan Kumar Agarwal while addressing a national consultation on the draft regulation on food labelling organised by the CUTS International. Agarwal also made it clear that Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) will go ahead with the labelling norms even if there is no full consensus on the matter after the panel’s suggestions. In April 2018, the FSSAI had come out with the draft of ‘Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018’ that propose mandatory red-label marking on packaged food products containing high levels of fat, sugar and salt. However, for now, the government has put on hold these draft regulations following the concerns raised by stakeholders. Draft provisions of Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018 • The draft regulations suggest for mandatory declaration by packaged food manufacturers about nutritional information such as calories, total fat, trans fat, sugar and salt per serve on the front of the pack. • The draft pitches for a colour code, proposes that the high fats such as sugar and salt, trans-fat and sodium content should be coloured as ‘red’, if the value of energy from total sugar or fat is more than 10 percent of the total energy in the 100 grams or 100 ml of the product. • The colour coding will make it easier for consumers to know about the nutritional value of food products and will help them make choices as per their requirements. • It also makes mandatory to label food stuffs as ‘Contains GMO/Ingredients derived from GMO’, if the items contain 5 percent or more Genetically Engineered (GE) ingredients. • The nutritional information should also be provided in the form of bar code. Q.7 Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch , that sometimes seen in news : 1. It is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean 2. It is located from 135°E to 155°W Which

Q.1 With reference to the “India International Exchange” , consider the following statements : 1. It was opened very recently at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat 2. With this, it will be the third largest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response Select the correct answer using the using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -It was opened IN 2017 at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat ,BUT NOT VERY RECENTLY. – With this, it will be the fastest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response with the trade speed of four microseconds -This is better than BSE’s domestic exchange in Mumbai, which has an order response time of six microseconds – Singapore is the second fastest International exchange has the order response of 60 microseconds Q.2 In Context with the “Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)”, consider the following statements : 1. It is a greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions 2. BECSS works by involving the process of pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A -Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) is a potential greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy (energy from biomass) use with geologic carbon capture and storage.[1] The concept of BECCS is drawn from the integration of trees and crops, which extract carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere as they grow, the use of this biomass in processing industries or power plants, and the application of carbon capture and storage via CO2 injection into geological formations.[2] There are other non-BECCS forms of carbon dioxide removal and storage that include technologies such as biochar, carbon dioxide air captureand biomass burial[3] and enhanced weathering. According to a recent Biorecro report, there is 550 000 tonnes CO2/year in total BECCS capacity currently operating, divided between three different facilities (as of January 2012) In the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), BECCS was indicated as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets.[8] The negative emissions that can be produced by BECCS has been estimated by the Royal Society to be equivalent to a 50 to 150 ppmdecrease in global atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations[9] and according to the International Energy Agency, the BLUE map climate change mitigation scenario calls for more than 2 gigatonnes of negative CO2 emissions per year with BECCS in 2050.[10] According to Stanford University, 10 gigatonnes is achievable by this date According to the OECD, “Achieving lower concentration targets (450 ppm) depends significantly on the use of BECCS”.[13] An alternative to BECSS is pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar.[14] Which are superior in order to fix carbon in a more stable way: solid C, for longer times. Carbon dioxide injected into geologic formations eventually leaks back into the atmosphere due to seismic activity and natural faults and problems with the seal of the ancient injection pits. Q.3 Which among the following is/are classified under the Third Generation Vaccines ? 1. DTP vaccine 2. DNA Vaccine 3. Polio Vaccine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 2 Ans. D DTP vaccine – Second generation Vaccine DNA Vaccine- Third generation Vaccine Polio Vaccine- First generation Vaccine DNA vaccination is a technique for protecting against disease by injection with genetically engineered DNA so cells directly produce an antigen, producing a protective immunological response. DNA vaccines have potential advantages over conventional vaccines, including the ability to induce a wider range of immune response types. Several DNA vaccines are available for veterinary use. Currently no DNA vaccines have been approved for human use. Research is investigating the approach for viral, bacterial and parasitic diseases in humans,  as well as for several cancers. Applications No DNA vaccines have been approved for human use in the United States. Few experimental trials have evoked a response strong enough to protect against disease and the technique’s usefulness remains to be proven in humans. A veterinary DNA vaccine to protect horses from West Nile virus has been approved. First-Generation Vaccines. Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are identified in the first generation, which use a primary method in their production. Attenuated pathogens, full organisms or inactivated bacterial toxin, which are effectively immunogenic, are used in making these vaccines. 2nd Generation Vaccines:- The second generation vaccines were created in order to minimize the risks of having the pathogen revert to a dangerous form. The way these vaccines work is that they do not contain the whole organism, but rather subunits. Subunits may consist of the toxins that the pathogen create (if they are bacterial). Another example of subunit vaccines are those that only contain protein sections of the pathogen, such as an acellular form. A great example of a 2nd generation vaccine is DTaP. The vaccine contains diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, pertussis toxoid, as well as the acellular version of pertussis. As with the issues with the 1st generation of vaccines, the 2nd generation vaccines can generate antibody response and T-helper response, but AGAIN, no T-Killer response. Q.4 Which among the following is/are the examples of The Near Field Communication ? 1. Public transport card readers 2. Smart phones 3. Touch payment terminals Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm (1.6 in) of each other.[1] NFC devices are used in contactless

Q.1 With reference to the news what is “INSTEX” ? A) It is a 2000 ft long device to start clean up in the North Pacific Ocean B) It is a transaction channel that will allow companies to continue trading with Iran despite US sanctions C) It is a natural gas pipeline being developed with the participation of the Asian Development Bank D) It is the rule book that sets out how countries will provide information about their Nationally Determined Contributions Ans. B • The transaction channel will allow European businesses to trade with Iran, despite strict US sanctions. • Though the payment channel is a project of Britain, France and Germany, it will receive the formal endorsement of all 28 EU members. • It will support legitimate European trade with Iran, focusing initially on the sectors most essential to the Iranian population such as pharmaceutical, medical devices and agri-food goods. • In the longer term, INSTEX aims to be open to third countries wanting to trade with Iran. • However, INSTEX is not yet operational as it needs Iran to set up a parallel structure of its own, which may take some time to complete. • While it is aimed at small and medium-sized companies, it is expected to send an important message to Iran about Europe’s commitment to keep the nuclear deal alive. Objective The launch of the special payment channel is a clear and practical demonstration of Europe’s commitment to continuing the nuclear deal. Q.2 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. Spouse will not be entitled to receive pension in case of death 2. Workers covered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation will not be entitled to pension 3. It is 100% funded by the Union government Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C •   The unorganised sector workers, with income of less than Rs 15,000 per month and who belong to the entry age group of 18-40 years, will be eligible for the scheme. •   Those workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). •   He or she should not be an income tax payer. The workers of unorganised sector can be home based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washer men, rickshaw pullers, landless labourers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio- visual workers and similar other occupations. Benefits under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme will receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. In case of death during receipt of pension: If the subscriber dies during the receipt of pension, his or her spouse will be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as family pension. This family pension is applicable only to spouse. In case of death before the age of 60 years: If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and dies before attaining the age of 60 years, his or her spouse will be entitled to continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or may even exit the scheme. Equal contribution by the Central Government: Under the PM-SYM, the prescribed age-specific contribution by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government will be made on a ‘50:50 basis’. Q.3 With reference to the Sandbag Climate Campaign , consider the following statements : 1. It was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme 2. It addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A –Sandbag or Sandbag Climate Campaign is a Community Interest Company, campaigning for changes to European climate change policy, especially emissions trading. The organisation was launched in 2008 by Bryony Worthington and was the first (and founding) member of The Guardian’s Environment Network Sandbag was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme, allowing its members to campaign to reduce the number of permits in circulation and to purchase permits and cancel them. Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF): The forum addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities. Q.4 With reference to the Halogen Light Bulbs, consider the following statements : 1. White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays 2. They have the same tungsten filament as the typical incandescent light bulbs 3. Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1,2,3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Fluorescent bulbs : White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays Vapour lamps : Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness A halogen lamp, also known as a tungsten halogen, quartz-halogen or quartz iodine lamp, is an incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed into a compact transparent envelope that is filled with a mixture of an inert gas and a small amount of a halogensuch as iodine or bromine. The combination of the halogen gas and the tungsten filament produces a halogen cycle chemical reaction which redeposits evaporated tungsten to the filament, increasing its life and maintaining the clarity of the envelope. For this to happen, a halogen lamp must be operated at a higher envelope temperature (250° C; 482° F)[1] than a standard vacuum incandescent lamp of similar power and

Q.1 What is a major use of Allethrin ? A) In household insecticides B) In glass manufacture C) In steel manufacture D) In paints & varnishes Ans.A  MOCK Q.454 Q.2 Custom duty on non-edible oils has been reduced to encourage soaps & oleochemicals. What are Oleochemicals ? 1. These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products 2. They are analogous to petrochemicals derived from petroleum. Which among the above are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products & animal fats. Q.3 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League ? 1. Chad 2. Israel 3. South Sudan 4. Libya 5. Oman Which among  the above is/are correct ? A) 3,4,5 B) Only 1 & 2 C) 1,2,5 D) All are the members Ans. B The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by  Egypt,  Iraq,  Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Transjordan (Jordan from 1946) and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century, with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admitted. Q.4 Which of the following is superimposed international boundary ? A) USA –Mexico boundary B) India-Pakistan boundary along Jammu & Kashmir C) 38th North parallel boundary between North & south Korea D) Chile-Argentina boundary along Andes Ans. B A superimposed boundary is a boundary that has been imposed on an area by an outside or conquering power. This boundary ignores the cultural organizations on this landscape Q.5 Land reclamation is the subject dealt by : A) Ministry of rural development B) Ministry of agriculture C) Ministry of panchayati raj D) Ministry of earth sciences Ans. B Land reclamation, usually known as reclamation, and also known as land fill (not to be confused with a landfill), is the process of creating new land from oceans, seas, riverbeds or lake beds. The land reclaimed is known as reclamation ground or land fill. Q.6 Which of the following best describes the Blue Carbon Initiative ? A) It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of marine ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses B) It refers to the technique of capturing carbon dioxide from  the atmosphere & keeping it stored over a long period time C) It is an initiative to understand , quantify & manage greenhouse gas emissions so that rise in temperature by the end of century does not exceed 20 c or even 1.50c above pre-industrial levels D) It is an international initiative by providing technical & financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies & budgets Ans. A It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of marine ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses The Initiative is coordinated by Conservation International (CI), the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO). The Initiative works through two working groups: the International Blue Carbon Scientific Working Group and the International Blue Carbon Policy Working Group. Q.7 To fulfill the Government of India’s mission & to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country, Academia Alliance Programme has been formed. With whose initiative Academia Alliance Programme has been formed ? A) Niti Ayog B) Confederation of Indian Industries C) Startup India D) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy Ans. C To fulfill the Governmentof India’s mission to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country, Startup India launched the Startup Academia Alliance programme, a unique mentorship opportunity between academic scholars and startups working in similar domains. The Startup Academia Alliance aims to reduce the gap between scientific research and its industrial applications in order to increase the efficacy of these technologies and to widen their impact. By creating a bridge between academia and industry, the Alliance strives to create lasting connections between the stakeholders of the startup ecosystem and implement the third pillar on which the Startup India Action Plan is based – Industry Academia Partnerships and Incubation. The first phase of Startup Academia Alliance was kickstarted through partnering with Regional Centre for Biotechnology, The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), Council on Energy, Environment and Water, and TERI School of Advanced Studies. Renowned scholars from these institutes, in fields such as renewable energy, biotechnology, healthcare and life sciences were taken on board to provide mentorship and guidance to startups working in relevant arenas. Q.8 With respect to the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing & Urban Development (APMCHUD) , consider the following statements : 1. Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020” 2. It was established under the aegis & support of UN Habitat Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are in correct Ans. B Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ Emerging Urban Forms –Policy Reforms & Governance Structures in the Context of New Urban Agenda” 2006 THEME : “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020 Q.9 With respect to the International Trade Centre , consider the following statements : 1. ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) & World Trade Organisation (WTO) 2. They are subordinate to the United Nations & derive most of their financial resources other than the Union Nation Budgets Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are in correct Ans. A ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) & World