UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY

Raashid Shah

GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-8

Q.1 What are BPO & KPO ? 1) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is involved with high skilled workers 2) Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO) enables the company to create additional business opportunities Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.2 Consider the statements in context with the Plantation agriculture : 1) It has a large size of landholdings 2) Machines & fertilizers are used in this type of agriculture 3) Scientific methods are used in this type of cultivation 4) Tea, coffee, Rubber, Cocoa  & Oil palm are the examples of this type of agriculture Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.3 Statements: 1) In Mixed farming cultivation of crops & animal rearing go side by side 2) Scientific methods are used in Dairy farming 3) Large number of labour force is needed in Mixed farming 4) Wheat, Maize, Barley, Potato & sugarbeet are the examples of the Mixed farming Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.4 Statements: 1) Pastoral nomadism is a subsistence activity depending upon the animals 2) Foraging is the subsistence of the people based on hunting of animals 3) In Intensive subsistence agriculture crops are grown on small landholdings 4) In Factory Farming cattle are reared mainly in stalls & pens Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.5 Which of the following are the limitations of the Shifting cultivation ? 1) Soil erosion 2) Land degradation 3) Extinction of flora & fauna Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.6 In context with the Primitive subsistence Farming, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Shifting of crop land is done in place of shifting of crops 2) Yield per hectare is low 3) Agriculture is done by clearing of forests Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.7 Statements: 1) Heavy & basic industries using Coal as a raw material are termed as Smokestack Industries 2) Footloose Industries are those that improve their products to compete with world market & these are free to choose their site of location Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.8 In context with the Handloom sector which among the following are correct ? 1) It is labour intensive 2) It is nominal capital investment 3) It includes spinning,weaving & finishing of fabrics Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.9 Which of the following are the examples of hydrophytes ? 1) Hydrilla 2) Wolffia 3) Typha 4) Water Hyacinth Which among above are correct ? A) Only 3 B) 1,3,4 C)  2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D Q.10Why wetlands are considered useful ? 1) They act as groundwater recharge areas 2) These help in controlling flood 3) These are the source of food like wild rice, berries ,etc 4) Mangrove swamps are found in intertidal zones along shoreline Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-7

Q.1 Which among the following statements are correct regarding Wetland farming ? 1) It is mainly practiced in those areas where annual rainfall is more than the 300 cm 2) Water intensive crops are cultivated 3) Paddy, Jute, Sugarcane, Tea & rice are cultivated Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.2 Which of the following are the features of the rain fed crops ? 1) These crops have the capacity to hold the moisture of the soil 2) Animal rearing is an important economic activity 3) Cultivation of the rainfed crops have increased livestock rearing in arid & semi arid areas Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Annual rainfall lies between 20 cm to 75 cm Q.3 Which of the following are the objectives of the Rain water harvesting ? 1) To reduce run off & to avoid flooding of water 2) To raise the water table 3) To supplement domestic water requirement Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.4 In context with the Ground water which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Ground water includes wells & tube wells 2) Peninsular plateau & western Rajasthan have very low water table 3) Ground water is available only in those areas where permeable rocks are present 4) Water percolates easily in the alluvial plains as it has a high potential of ground water Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.5 Which of the following are the conventional sources of energy ? 1) Coal 2) Petroleum 3) Natural Gas 4) Hydro electricity 5) Nuclear energy Which among above are correct ? A) 1 & 2 B) Only 3 C) 2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Nuclear energy is the non-conventional source Q.6 Which of the following are the Ferrous minerals ? 1) Iron 2) Nickel 3) Cobalt 4) Manganese 5) Copper 6) Gold Codes: A) 1,3,4,5,6 B) 2,3,4,5,6 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5,6 Ans. C Non-ferrous- Copper,lead,zinc,gold,silver Ferrous- Iron.nickel,cobalt, manganese,chromium (McRiCoN) Q.7 Which among the following are the features of the Bangalore-Chennai Industrial region ? 1) This region is away from the coal fields 2) Demand is fulfilled by the Pykara Hydro electric plant Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.8 Why sugarcane industry decentralized from Northern plain to Peninsular India ? 1) Sucrose content is much higher in the sugar cane of the peninsular India 2) Sugar Industry in Peninsular India is under the Cooperative sector while in Northern India it is under the Private sector Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.9 Which among the following  statements are correct regarding Panama Canal ? 1) Lock system of Panama Canal is inconvenient & delays the ships 2) Huge ships can not pass through this canal 3) It has reduced the distance between the eastern & western coast of North & South America Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.10 What are the economic importance of the Trans-siberian railways ? 1) It was constructed for the administrative & military purposes 2) It is a double track route 3) It was constructed to integrate the European & Asian parts of Russia Codes: A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-6

Q.1 During the industrial production of which of the following Ozone depleting gas is released ? 1) Body sprays 2) Foam mattresses 3) Modern refrigerators 4) Perfumes Which among the above are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C Q.2 Statements: 1) Smoke screens are used in warfare for the purpose of concealment & camouflage . 2) These consists of small particles of silver iodide dispersed in air Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.3 Statements: 1) Coal, petroleum & natural gas are the fossil fuels 2) Geothermal energy is a non-conventional energy source 3) Gobar gas contains mainly Methane 4) Gasohol is a mixture of benzene & alcohol Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.4 Statements: 1) Organic farming reduces the emission of green house gases 2) Organic farming helps in the absorption CO2 in the soil Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.5 Which of the pulse crop fixes atmospheric nitrogen ? 1) Pea 2) Rajma 3) Moong 4) Gram Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C Q.6 Which of the following Biosphere Reserves have been recognized by UNESCO ? 1) Nilgiri 2) Nanda devi 3) Manas 4) Simlipal Codes: A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 4 C) 3 & 4 D) 1 & 2 Ans. D Q.7 In context with the Inland ports, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) These are located away from the sea coast 2) They are linked with the sea through a river or canal 3) These ports are accessible to the flat bottom ships Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.8 In context with the Outports which among the following statements are correct ? 1) These are deep water ports that are built away from the actual ports 2) Theses serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to huge size Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.9 Statements: 1) Tea is mainly cultivated in sub-Himalayan region & hilly areas of Tamil Nadu 2) Cotton cultivation is mainly cultivated in Tropical & Sub tropical areas Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.10 Which among the following statements are correct regarding Dryland farming ? 1) This type of farming is carried out in those parts where annual rainfall is less than 75 cm 2) Pulses, oil seeds, Cotton, Jowar, Bajra are the principal crops Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-5

Q.1 “Diversified cropping refers to system of multiple cropping rather than multiple cropping”, which of the following are the advantages of diversified cropping ? 1) It lowers the risk of farming on account of failure of monsoon 2) It enhances scope for commercialization of farming Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.2 Which of the following are the objectives of the Organic farming ? 1) Discard use of non-renewable resources 2) Sustains soil fertility 3) It is labour-intensive process of production 4) Low yield Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.3 In context with the Maiden Jullian Oscillation, which among the following are correct ? 1) It is evident over the Indian Ocean & Western equatorial pacific 2) It influences the global monsoon pattern 3) It is an eastward moving of cloud & rainfall near the equator 4) It is a feature of the tropical atmosphere Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Q.4 In context with the Walker circulation, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) It results from the high pressure system over the eastern pacific ocean 2) When Walker circulation weakens it causes Ei-Nino while when it gets stronger it results in La-Nina Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.5 Which among the following statements regarding United Nation Framework Convention on climate change is/are correct ? 1) It is a legally binding 2) It sets mandatory limits of green house gases emissions 3) It stabilizes green house gas concentrations Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. B It is a legally binding while Kyoto Protocol is legally binding It does not set mandatory limits of green house gases emissions Q. 6 What could be the main reason /reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt ? 1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells. 2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context ? A)  1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A Hot deserts are located between 20°30° latitude in both the hemisphere on the western coast of the continents. They are also called Tropical Deserts. They are different from the mid latitude deserts and cold deserts, hot deserts are found in High pressure belts along the Tropics in the trade winds region. Distribution Of Hot Deserts: (i)Asia Thar desert and the Arabian Desert; (ii)Africa The Sahara and the Kalahari; (iii)N. America Lower California and Arizona states of USA; (iv)S. AmericaAtacama desert; (v)Australia The Great Australian desert. The Sahara desert of Africa is the biggest hot desert of the world. The Hot desert regions are located in the subtropical high pressure belts, which are not favourable regions for rainfall Q.7 Which of the following pollutants are present in the Water pollution ? 1) Nitrates & Phosphates 2) Chloroform 3) fats Which among above are correct ? A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C Contaminants may include organic and inorganic substances. Organic water pollutants include: •           Detergents •           Disinfection by-products found in chemically disinfected drinking water, such as chloroform •           Food processing waste, which can include oxygen-demanding substances, fats and grease •           Insecticides and herbicides, a huge range of organohalides and other chemical compounds •           Petroleum hydrocarbons, including fuels (gasoline, diesel fuel, jet fuels, and fuel oil) and lubricants (motor oil), and fuel combustionbyproducts, from stormwater runoff •           Tree and bush debris from logging operations •           Volatile organic compounds (VOCs), such as industrial solvents, from improper storage. •           Chlorinated solvents, which are dense non-aqueous phase liquids (DNAPLs), may fall to the bottom of reservoirs, since they don’t mix well with water and are denser. •           Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs) •           Trichloroethylene •           Perchlorate •           Various chemical compounds found in personal hygiene and cosmetic products •           Drug pollution involving pharmaceutical drugs and their metabolites Inorganic water pollutants include: •           Acidity caused by industrial discharges (especially sulfur dioxide from power plants) •           Ammonia from food processing waste •           Chemical waste as industrial by-products •           Fertilizers containing nutrients–nitrates and phosphates—which are found in stormwater runoff from agriculture, as well as commercial and residential use •           Heavy metals from motor vehicles (via urban stormwater runoff)  and acid mine drainage •           Silt (sediment) in runoff from construction sites, logging, slash and burn practices or land clearing sites. Macroscopic pollution—large visible items polluting the water—may be termed “floatables” in an urban stormwater context, or marine debris when found on the open seas, and can include such items as: •           Trash or garbage (e.g. paper, plastic, or food waste) discarded by people on the ground, along with accidental or intentional dumping of rubbish, that are washed by rainfall into storm drains and eventually discharged into surface waters •           Nurdles, small ubiquitous waterborne plastic pellets •           Shipwrecks, large derelict ships. Q.8 Statements: 1) Western Hoolock Gibbon is found in Assam,Bangladesh and in Myanmar 2) Seahorses are mainly found in shallow tropical and temperate waters throughout the world, and live in sheltered areas such as seagrassbeds, estuaries, coral reefs, or mangroves Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C List of Endangered & Critically Endangered : Critically Endangered Birds 1.         White-bellied Heron (Ardea insignis) 2.         Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) 3.         Forest Owlet (Athene blewitti) 4.         Baer’s Pochard (Aythya baeri) 5.         Spoon-billed Sandpiper (Eurynorhynchus pygmeus) 6.         Siberian Crane (Grus leucogeranus) 7.         White-rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis) 8.         Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus) 9.         Slender-billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris) 10.       Bengal Florican (Houbaropsis bengalensis) 11.       Himalayan Quail (Ophrysia superciliosa) 12.       Jerdon’s Courser (Rhinoptilus bitorquatus) 13.       Pink-headed Duck (Rhodonessa caryophyllacea) 14.       Red-headed Vulture (Sarcogyps calvus) 15.       Sociable Lapwing (Vanellus gregarius) Fish 1.         Knifetooth sawfish (Anoxypristis cuspidata) 2.        

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-4

Q.1 Which among the following are correct ? National Park/wild life        Town 1) Jaisamand                    Agra 2) Nahargarh                    Jaipur 3) Kerera                         Jhansi Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.2 Statements: 1) Red Panda is naturally found in the Western Himalayas only 2) In India slow Loris lives in the dense forests of North east Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Q.3 Statements: 1) Balaghat is famous for its diamond mines 2) Majhagawan is known for its manganese deposits Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Q.4 Statements : 1) Either of the two belts over the oceans at about 300 to 350 N & S latitudes is known as the Horse latitudes 2) Horse latitudes are low pressure belts Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Q.5 Statements: 1) Annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific ocean than in the Atlantic ocean 2) Annual range of temperature is greater in the northern hemisphere than the southern hemisphere Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Q.6 Which of the following are the species of the Himalayan vegetation ? 1) Juniper 2) Mahogany 3) spruce 4) Silver fir Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A Q.7 Which of the following is a ape ? 1) Langur 2) Gibbon 3) Orangutan 4) Gorilla Codes: A) 2,3,4 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A Q.8 Which of the following are the Biodiversity hotspots ? 1) Eastern Himalayas 2) Eastern Mediterranean region 3) North-Western Australia Codes: A) Only 1 B) 1,2,3 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 3 Ans. A Q.9 In context of CO2 emission & global warming what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce green house gas emissions ? A) Carbon footing B) Emission reduction norm C) Carbon Credit Rating D) Clean Development mechanism Ans. C Q.10 Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh : A) Beas & Chenab B) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, satluj & Yamuna C) Beas & Ravi D) Chenab, Ravi & Satluj Ans. B

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-3

Q.1 Which of the following food chain & its model are correctly matched ? 1) Grassland ecosystem : Straight pyramid 2) Parasitic food chain : Inverted Pyramid 3) Pond ecosystem : Straight pyramid Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.2 Which of the following are the characteristics of the detritus food chain ? 1) Solar radiation is the primary source of energy 2) It includes herbivores, Carnivores & Omnivores 3) Mangroves fallen leaves is the example of this type of food chain Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.3 Statements: 1) Pollination is the example of Symbiosis 2) Hermit Crab & sea anemone is the example of Proto-coopertaion 3) Ecotone is the transition zone between two biomes 4) Spotted dear comes under the category of Altruism Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 Ans. C Q.4 Which of the following are the causes of the Coral Bleaching ? 1) Increased solar irradiance 2) Increased sedimentation 3) Elevated sea levels due to global warming 4) Changes in salinity & Herbicides Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Coral bleaching is the loss of intracellular endosymbionts (Symbiodinium, also known as zooxanthellae) through either expulsion or loss of algal pigmentation.The corals that form the structure of the great reef ecosystems of tropical seas depend upon a symbiotic relationship with algae-like unicellular flagellate protozoa that are photosynthetic and live within their tissues. Zooxanthellae give coral its coloration, with the specific color depending on the particular clade. Under stress, corals may expel their zooxanthellae, which leads to a lighter or completely white appearance, hence the term “bleached” Q.5 lion Tailed Macaque is commonly found at : A) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu B) West Bengal, Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu C) Karnataka & kerala D) None of the above Ans. A The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus), or the wanderoo, is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats of South India Q.6 Red Pandas are classified as : A) Vulnerable B) Threatened C) Endangered D) Extinct Ans. A The red panda is endemic to the temperate forests of the Himalayas, and ranges from the foothills of western Nepal to China in the east. Its easternmost limit is the Qinling Mountains of the Shaanxi Province in China. Its range includes southern Tibet, Sikkim andAssam in India, Bhutan, the northern mountains of Burma, and in southwestern China, in the Hengduan Mountains of Sichuan and the Gongshan Mountains in Yunnan. It may also live in southwest Tibet and northern Arunachal Pradesh, but this has not been documented. Locations with the highest density of red pandas include an area in the Himalayas that has been proposed as having been a refuge for a variety of endemic species in the Pleistocene. The distribution range of the red panda should be considered disjunct, rather than continuous. A disjunct population inhabits the Meghalaya Plateau of northeastern India. Q.7 In context with Musk Deer consider the following statements : 1) It is considered as a Vulnerable. 2) These are commonly found in Himalayas & mountains of South-east Asia 3) Their appearance is very similar as compared to Brow-antlered deer. Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.8 In context with Loris, consider the following statements : 1) They are classified as Vulnerable or endangered under IUCN 2) They are most commonly found at Assam & some states of North-Eastern India Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Q.9 Which of the following substances are found in beach sands of kerala ? 1) Tungsten 2) Zircon 3) Sillimanite 4) Ilmenite Codes: A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Q.10 Which among the following are correct ? Handicrafts         State 1) Mon              Arunachal Pradesh 2) Pasighat        Nagaland 3) Tura             Meghalaya Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-2

Q.1 Which of the following food chain & its model are correctly matched ? 1) Grassland ecosystem : Straight pyramid 2) Parasitic food chain : Inverted Pyramid 3) Pond ecosystem : Straight pyramid Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 Which of the following are the characteristics of the detritus food chain ? 1) Solar radiation is the primary source of energy 2) It includes herbivores, Carnivores & Omnivores 3) Mangroves fallen leaves is the example of this type of food chain Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3 Statements: 1) Pollination is the example of Symbiosis 2) Hermit Crab & sea anemone is the example of Proto-coopertaion 3) Ecotone is the transition zone between two biomes 4) Spotted dear comes under the category of Altruism Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 Ans. C   Q.4 Which of the following are the causes of the Coral Bleaching ? 1) Increased solar irradiance 2) Increased sedimentation 3) Elevated sea levels due to global warming 4) Changes in salinity & Herbicides Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Coral bleaching is the loss of intracellular endosymbionts (Symbiodinium, also known as zooxanthellae) through either expulsion or loss of algal pigmentation.The corals that form the structure of the great reef ecosystems of tropical seas depend upon a symbiotic relationship with algae-like unicellular flagellate protozoa that are photosynthetic and live within their tissues. Zooxanthellae give coral its coloration, with the specific color depending on the particular clade. Under stress, corals may expel their zooxanthellae, which leads to a lighter or completely white appearance, hence the term “bleached”   Q.5 lion Tailed Macaque is commonly found at : A) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu B) West Bengal, Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu C) Karnataka & kerala D) None of the above Ans. A The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus), or the wanderoo, is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats of South India   Q.6 Red Pandas are classified as : A) Vulnerable B) Threatened C) Endangered D) Extinct Ans. A The red panda is endemic to the temperate forests of the Himalayas, and ranges from the foothills of western Nepal to China in the east. Its easternmost limit is the Qinling Mountains of the Shaanxi Province in China. Its range includes southern Tibet, Sikkim andAssam in India, Bhutan, the northern mountains of Burma, and in southwestern China, in the Hengduan Mountains of Sichuan and the Gongshan Mountains in Yunnan. It may also live in southwest Tibet and northern Arunachal Pradesh, but this has not been documented. Locations with the highest density of red pandas include an area in the Himalayas that has been proposed as having been a refuge for a variety of endemic species in the Pleistocene. The distribution range of the red panda should be considered disjunct, rather than continuous. A disjunct population inhabits the Meghalaya Plateau of northeastern India.   Q.7 In context with Musk Deer consider the following statements : 1) It is considered as a Vulnerable. 2) These are commonly found in Himalayas & mountains of South-east Asia 3) Their appearance is very similar as compared to Brow-antlered deer. Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 In context with Loris, consider the following statements : 1) They are classified as Vulnerable or endangered under IUCN 2) They are most commonly found at Assam & some states of North-Eastern India Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.9 Which of the following substances are found in beach sands of kerala ? 1) Tungsten 2) Zircon 3) Sillimanite 4) Ilmenite Codes: A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.10 Which among the following are correct ? Handicrafts         State 1) Mon              Arunachal Pradesh 2) Pasighat        Nagaland 3) Tura             Meghalaya Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D No Comments on GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-2 Leave A Comment Cancel Reply Logged in as admin. Log out » Comments Name Email

GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-2 Read More »

GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET -1

Q.1 Cooking with solid fuel on open fires or traditional stoves results in high levels of indoor air pollution. The indoor smoke contains a range of health damaging pollutants, which include the following except : A) Benzopyrenes B) Carbon monoxide C) Lead oxide D) Sulphur oxides   Q.2 Which of the following can help in reducing the carbon footprint ? 1. Using fly-ash based cement in building construction 2. Using LED-based electric lamps instead of incandescent lamps Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both I and 2 D) Neither I nor 2   Q.3 Statements: 1. Golden langur is the world monkey found in a small region of Western Assam. 2. Desert Cat and Hoolock Gibbon are endangered species. Which statement is correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.4 Statements 1. Steppes is the temperate grassland found in Eurasia 2. The rivers of south India have Trellis type of drainage pattern.  Which statement is correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.5 Which among the following are correct? 1. Birhor : Jharkhand 2. Bhutiya: Sikkim 3. Toda: Andaman & Nicobar Island 4. Sentinelese: Tamil Nadu Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 4 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 3 Ans. C Toda: Tamil Nadu Sentinelese: Andaman & Nicobar Islands   Q.6 Statements: 1. The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the zenith 2. The difference in the duration of day & night increases as one move from equator to poles. Which statement is correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.7 In which of the following environments are green algae are found? 1. Salt water 2. Fresh water 3. Moist areas on land 4. Dry areas on land Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,4 Ans. A   Q.8 Of the following locations, you would most likely find mosses growing in- A) Shaded ground water near a small pond B) Sandy soil near a beach C) Hot, dry mineral-poor soil D) Exposed ground with direct sun Ans . A   Q.9 Mangroves are found in I. Sunderbans (West Bengal) II. Gulf of Khambat (Gujarat) III. Vembanad (Kerela) Codes: A)  I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.10 Which of the following biospheres has UNESCO recognition? 1. Manas 2. Kanchenjunga 3. Seshachalam Hills 4. Greater Nicobar Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1 & 2 D) 4 only Ans. D   Q.11 Which among the following plays an important role in formation of tides ? 1) Rotation of earth 2) Gravitation of Sun 3) Gravitation of Earth 4) Revolution of earth Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C   Q.12 Which of the following are the basis on which natural region of the earth is divided ? 1) Temperature 2) Rainfall 3) Vegetation 4) Latitude 5) Longitude 6) Atmospheric pressure Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 4,5,6 C) 1,2,3,4 D) All are correct Ans. A   Q. 13 What are the potential applications of Coal gasification technology? A) Exploitation of deep coal deposits that cannot be mined using conventional means B) In-situ capture of carbon C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B Ans. C Coal gasification offers one of the most versatile and clean ways to convert coal into electricity, hydrogen, and other valuable energy products. Coal gasification electric power plants are now operating commercially in the United States and in other nations, and many experts predict that coal gasification will be at the heart of future generations of clean coal technology plants.  Rather than burning coal directly, gasification (a thermo-chemical process) breaks down coal – or virtually any carbon-based feedstock – into its basic chemical constituents. In a modern gasifier, coal is typically exposed to steam and carefully controlled amounts of air or oxygen under high temperatures and pressures. Under these conditions, molecules in coal break apart, initiating chemical reactions that typically produce a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen and other gaseous compounds. Gasification, in fact, may be one of the most flexible technologies to produce clean-burning hydrogen for tomorrow’s automobiles and power-generating fuel cells. Hydrogen and other coal gases can also be used to fuel power-generating turbines, or as the chemical “building blocks” for a wide range of commercial products. (Read more about hydrogen production) The Energy Department’s Office of Fossil Energy is working on coal gasifier advances that enhance efficiency, environmental performance, and reliability as well as expand the gasifier’s flexibility to process a variety of coals and other feedstocks (including biomass and municipal/industrial wastes). ENVIRONMENTAL BENEFITS The environmental benefits of gasification stem from the capability to achieve extremely low SOx, NOx and particulate emissions from burning coal-derived gases. Sulfur in coal, for example, is converted to hydrogen sulfide and can be captured by processes presently used in the chemical industry. In some methods, the sulfur can be extracted in either a liquid or solid form that can be sold commercially.  In an Integrated Gasification Combined-Cycle (IGCC) plant, the syngas produced is virtually free of fuel-bound nitrogen.  NOx from the gas turbine is limited to thermal NOx. Diluting the syngas allows for NOx emissions as low as 15 parts per million. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) can be used to reach levels comparable to firing with natural gas if required to meet more stringent emission levels. Other advanced emission control processes are being developed that could reduce NOx from hydrogen fired turbines to as low as 2 parts per million. The Office of Fossil Energy is also exploring advanced syngas cleaning and conditioning processes that are even more effective in eliminating emissions from coal gasifiers. Multi-contaminant control processes are being developed that reduce pollutants to parts-per-billion levels and

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QUIZ 1

Q.1 Which of the following expenses require sanction of Parliament ? 1) Defence expenditure 2) Debt charges of the government 3) Maintenance expenditure of embassies 4) Salary & allowances of President & CAG Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 4 C) 1 &2 D) 3 & 4 Q.2 Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of  India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). If he seeks such an advice. III. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizen. Codes: A) I & III B) II & III C) I & II D) All are correct Ans. C   Q.3 Which of the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary& Presidential form of Govt.? A) Power of Judicial review B) Method of election of President/Head of State C) Legislative supremacy in law making D) Relation between the legislature & the executive Ans. B Parliamentary Government: The executive is not separated from the legislature. The members of council of ministers are the members of legislature. The executive is accountable to the legislature. The executive loses power when it loses the confidence of the legislature. In the Parliamentary government, one person is head of state while another persons is head of government. In the Parliamentary systems, the Prime Minister is most powerful. In the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister can appoint only the members of parliament as minister. In the Parliamentary system, the tenure of the executive is not fixed. The Council of Ministers is dismissed if it loses the confidence of the legislature before its tenure is over. The Parliamentary government is more democratic, because the executive • (council of ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament). There is less of separation of powers in the Parliamentary government. During war and other emergencies, the Parliamentary government is relatively less effective and successful. Presidential Government: The executive is completely separated I from the legislature. The members of executive are not the members of the legislature. The executive is not accountable to the II legislature. The legislature cannot remove the executive from power] through no-confidence motion. In the Presidential government, i same person is head of state as well as head of government. In the Presidential system, the President is most powerful. In the Presidential system, the President appoint persons from outside the legislature as minister. In the Presidential system, executive has a fixed tenure normally, the executive head (President) stays in power for the whole term. It is not easy to remove him from power through impeachment. The Presidential government is democratic, because the executive (President) is not accountable to the legislature.   Q.4 Examine statements carefully & select the answers to these items using the code given below: Statement I: Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding officer of the House. Statement II : When the Presiding officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. A) Both the statements are individually true & statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Ans. B The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House. The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance. The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law. A matter which falls within the jurisdiction of a State Government is inadmissible, but a matter concerning the constitutional developments in a State or atrocities on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections of the society which bring the Union Government into picture may be considered for admission on merits. The refusal to give his consent is in the absolute discretion of the Chair and he is not bound to give any reasons therefor. Before the commencement of a session notices of adjournment motion can at the earliest be given on and after the date notified for the purpose in Bulletin Part-II. This is normally three working days before the commencement of the session. Notices received prior to that date are not considered valid and are returned to the members. Telegraphic notice is not valid in view of provisions of Rule 332. During the session period, notice of an adjournment motion should be given by 10.00 hours on the day on which the motion is proposed to be made. Notices received after 10.00 hours are treated as notices given for the next sitting. As a convention, adjournment motions are not taken up on the day of the President’s Address. Notices received for that day are treated as notices for the next sitting.   Q.5 Which of the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? A) Federalism

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Elementor #27361

-हिंदी मेँ – इस लिँक पर क्लिक करेँ आई.ए.ए.स 2019 प्रिलिम्स -मौक सवाल Q.586 & 587 WILL BE FRAMED ON 23rd JULY 2023 COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.585 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   With reference to the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor consider the following :   It consists of electrified single track segment of 1409 km   It also includes states of Punjab & Haryana    Select the correct statement using the code given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct    D) Both are incorrect   COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.584 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Which among the following constitutes the Non-tax revenues of the government ?   Interest payments    Union Excise duties   Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. D   EXPENDITURES OF THE GOVERNMENT : Interest payments  Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets 3.Revenue Expenditure Capital Expenditure   NON TAX REVENUE : 1.Interest receipts Dividents & Profits External Grants Other non-tax revenues Receipts of union territories COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.583 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   With reference to Suez Canal, consider the following statements :   It allows ships to travel between Europe & South Asia without navigating around Africa thereby reducing the sea voyage distance between Europe & India by about 7000 km   A new stretch of the canal was just opened in 2015 . The northern terminus is Port said where there are two outlets to the sea ; the Southern terminus is Port Tewfik at the city of Suez , where there is one outlet to the sea   The canal is single lane with passing places in the Ballah bypass & Great Bitter lake   How many of the above statements are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. C   All three are correct The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and dividing Africa and Asia. The 193.30 km (120.11 mi) long canal is a popular trade route between Europe and Asia. In 1858, Ferdinand de Lesseps formed the Suez Canal Company for the express purpose of building the canal. Construction of the canal lasted from 1859 to 1869. The canal officially opened on 17 November 1869. It offers vessels a direct route between the North Atlantic and northern Indian oceans via the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea, avoiding the South Atlantic and southern Indian oceans and reducing the journey distance from the Arabian Sea to London by approximately 8,900 kilometres (5,500 mi), to 10 days at 20 knots (37 km/h; 23 mph) or 8 days at 24 knots (44 km/h; 28 mph). The canal extends from the northern terminus of Port Said to the southern terminus of Port Tewfik at the city of Suez. In 2021, more than 20,600 vessels traversed the canal (an average of 56 per day) COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.582 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   With reference to Economic curves, Consider the following :   Kuznets curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth   Laffer curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality   Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. A   3RD STATEMENT IS CORRECT    Kuznets curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality Laffer curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.581 FOR UPSC,UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   With reference to the Sidi Saiyyed Mosque consider the following statements :   The mosque is entirely arcuated & is known for its ten intricately carved stone latticework windows   It was built in the retinue of sultan Ahmad Shah Bilal Jhajar Khan   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct    D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C   The Sidi Saiyyed Mosque, popularly known as Sidi Saiyyid ni Jali locally, built in 1572–73 AD (Hijri year 980), is one of  the most famous mosques of Ahmedabad, a city in the state of Gujarat, India. The mosque was built by Sidi Sayyad,  a Habshi nobleman, in 1572–73. COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.580 FOR UPSC,UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   With reference to Rani Ki Vav (Queen’s stepwell), consider the following statements :   It was built by Queen Padmavati    It is designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water   It is also present on the new currency note of Rs. 100/-   How many of the above statements are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. B   2 & 3 STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT   Rani Ki Vav is a stepwell situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat, India. It is located on the banks of the Saraswati River. Its construction is attributed to Udayamati, the spouse of the 11th-century Chaulukya king Bhima I. Silted over, it was rediscovered in the 1940s and restored in the 1980s by the Archaeological Survey of India. It has been listed as one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India since 2014. The finest and one of the largest examples of its kind, this stepwell is designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water. It is divided into seven levels

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