GEOGRAPHY MCQS

Q.1 With reference to Suez Canal, consider the following statements : 1. It allows ships to travel between Europe & South Asia without navigating around Africa thereby reducing the sea voyage distance between Europe & India by about 7000 km 2. A new stretch of the canal was just opened in 2015 . The northern terminus is Port said where there are two outlets to the sea ; the Southern terminus is Port Tewfik at the city of Suez , where there is one outlet to the sea 3. The canal is single lane with passing places in the Ballah bypass & Great Bitter lake How many of the above statements are correct A) Only one B) Only two C) All three D) None Ans. C All three are correct The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and dividing Africa and Asia. The 193.30 km (120.11 mi) long canal is a popular trade route between Europe and Asia. In 1858, Ferdinand de Lesseps formed the Suez Canal Company for the express purpose of building the canal. Construction of the canal lasted from 1859 to 1869. The canal officially opened on 17 November 1869. It offers vessels a direct route between the North Atlantic and northern Indian oceans via the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea, avoiding the South Atlantic and southern Indian oceans and reducing the journey distance from the Arabian Sea to London by approximately 8,900 kilometres (5,500 mi), to 10 days at 20 knots (37 km/h; 23 mph) or 8 days at 24 knots (44 km/h; 28 mph). The canal extends from the northern terminus of Port Said to the southern terminus of Port Tewfik at the city of Suez. In 2021, more than 20,600 vessels traversed the canal (an average of 56 per day Q.2 The water logged soils are rendered infertile because of 1. Lack of aeration 2. Reduced soil temperature 3. Weed growth 4. Enhanced soil erosion How many of the above statements are correct A) Only one B) Only two C) Only three D) Only Four Ans. B 1 & 2 Statements are correct Q.3 With reference to Dampier & Hodges line, consider the following statements : 1. It is an imaginary line passing through 24 parganas south & North districts of Sunderbans 2. It indicates the northern most limits of the estuarine zone affected by tidal fluctiations’ Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C This line indicates the eco region of Sunderbans in India It is an imaginary line passing through 24 parganas south & North districts of Sunderbans It indicates the northern most limits of the estuarine zone affected by tidal fluctiations’ Q.4 Which among the following is not an Alpine Plant ? A) Forbs B) Lichens C) Cushion Plants D) Cotton Grass Ans. D Examples of Plants found in the Tundra: Arctic Moss, Arctic Willow, Caribou Moss, Labrador Tea, Arctic Poppy, Cotton Grass, Lichens and Moss. What are Alpine Plants? Alpine plants are those that grow at a high elevation and above the tree line. These plant species generally grow in alpine tundra. The species include perennial grasses, forbs, cushion plants, mosses and lichens. Q.5 With reference to the Rudraksh tree, consider the following statements : 1. It is a large evergreen tree that has broad-leaves whose seed is traditionally used for prayer beads in Hinduism and Buddhism 2. It is mainly found in Western Ghats of Karnataka & Kerala Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A MoU for Plantation of Rudraksh Trees; CTBTO Offers India Observer Status – Current Affairs Project aims at planting 10,000 Rudraksh trees in the Ganga Basin area in Uttarakhand in association with the local community. • Project aims at planting 10,000 Rudraksh trees in the Ganga Basin area in Uttarakhand in association with the local community. About Rudraksh Tree: •Elaeocarpus ganitrus or Rudraksh Tree is a large evergreen tree. It has broad-leaves whose seed is traditionally used for prayer beads in Hinduism and Buddhism. •Rudraksh tree develops the fruit in three to four years. It is mainly found in Gangetic plain, foothills of Himalyas, Nepal, Indonesia etc. Q.6 Consider the following : Protected Area Network                 Fauna 1. Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve :   Saltwater crocodile 2. Seshachalam hills           :   Sloth bear 3. Cold Desert                 :   Snow Leopard Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Seshachalam hills         :   Slender Loris Panna                     :   Tiger, Chittal ,Chinkara, Sambhar & Sloth Bear Q.7 With reference to the Hope Spots, consider the following statements : 1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have very recently been named as the new Hope Spots 2. These are declared under the Wildlife protection Act, 1972 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have recently (Not very recently)  been named as the new Hope Spots -List of Hope spots is prepared by the IUCN & Mission Blue -Hope Spots are areas of an ocean that need special protection because of their wildlife & significant underwater habitats Q.8 In which of the following region in India are you most likely to come across the ‘Golden Langur’ in its natural habitat ? A) Grasslands of Western Ghats B) Malabar region of Kerala C) Western Assam D) Sand deserts of north-west India Ans. C Golden langur, is an Old World monkey found in a small region of western Assam, India and in the neighboring foothills of the Black Mountains of Bhutan. It is one of the

FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography   Q.1 Which among the following are the fish eating birds ?   1. White breasted cormorants   2. Grey pelicans   3. Flamingo   4. White head gannets or piqueros   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1,2,4   B) 1 & 2   C) Only 1 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. A   FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA   Q.2 Pink Bollworm & cry toxins are associated with which of the following ?   A) Transgenic seeds   B) Bt cotton   C) Cisgenic organisms   D) Bt Brinjal   Ans. B Bt cotton is ineffective against many cotton pests such as plant bugs, stink bugs, and aphids; depending on circumstances it may be desirable to use insecticides in prevention. The gene coding for Bt toxin has been inserted into cotton as a transgene, causing it to produce this natural insecticide in its tissues. In many regions, the main pests in commercial cotton are lepidopteran larvae, which are killed by the Bt protein in the genetically modified cotton they eat. This eliminates the need to use large amounts of broad-spectrum insecticides to kill lepidopteran pests (some of which have developed pyrethroidresistance). This spares natural insect predators in the farm ecology and further contributes to noninsecticide pest management. The important advantages of Bt cotton are briefly : • Increases yield of cotton due to effective control of three types of bollworms, viz. American, Spotted and Pink bollworms. • Insects belonged to Lepidoptera (Bollworms) are sensitive to crystalline endotoxic protein produced by Bt gene which in turn protects cotton from bollworms. • Reduction in insecticide use in the cultivation of Bt cotton in which bollworms are major pests. • Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation (depending on seed cost versus insecticide costs). • Reduction in environmental pollution by the use of insecticides. • Bt cotton exhibit genetic resistance or inbuilt resistance which is a permanent type of resistance and not affected by environmental factors. Thus protects crop from bollworms. • Bt cotton is ecofriendly and does not have adverse effect on parasites, predators, beneficial insecticides and organisms present in soil. • It promotes multiplication of parasites and predators which help in controlling the bollworms by feeding on larvae and eggs of bollworm. • No health hazards due to rare use of insecticides (particularly who is engaged in spraying of insecticides).   FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA   Q.3 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the slurry of biogas plant ?   1. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry increases the yield of major crops   2. It has shown better yields in vegetable crops & in fodder crops.   3.It has been proved to completely remove the weed growth & their roots   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 2 & 3   D) Only 1 & 2   Ans. B The effectiveness of biogas plant slurry in combination with chemical fertilizers was studied for the production of various crops. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry decreased the yields of major crops, i.e. wheat, bajra, jawar and mustard. Application of slurry to replace half the nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in vegetable crops while replacement of the total nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in fodder crops. Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease. FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography   Q.4 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the river Barak ?   1. Maku   2. Shyok   3. Tuivai   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) Only 1   D) 1,2,3   Ans. B   The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai.   FRAMED FROM NCERT   Q.5  Which among the following is/are the wetlands ?   1. Swamps   2. Mangroves   3. Ferns   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 1,2,3   D) 2 & 3   Ans. C Wetlands occur naturally on every continent except Antarctica,the largest including the Amazon River basin, the West Siberian Plain,and the Pantanal in South America. The water found in wetlands can be freshwater, brackish, or saltwater. The main wetland types include swamps, marshes, bogs, and ferns; and sub-types include mangrove, carr, pocosin, and varzea. The UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment determined that environmental degradation is more prominent within wetland systems than any other ecosystem on Earth Wetlands have also been described as ecotones, providing a transition between dry land and water bodies. The most important factor producing wetlands is flooding. The duration of flooding determines whether the resulting wetland has aquatic, marsh or swamp vegetation. Other important factors include fertility, natural disturbance, competition, herbivory, burial and salinity.When peat accumulates, bogs and ferns arise. FRAMED FROM ICSE CLASS 7TH GEOGRAPHY   Q.6 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?   1. Sunabeda tiger reserve  :  West Bengal   2. Guru Ghasidas     :  Chhattisgarh   3. Ratapani Tiger Reserve :  Rajasthan   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 3   D) Only 2   Ans. D  

Q.1 Which of the following are incorrect? 1. The Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS) is a coalition of small island and low-lying coastal countries that share similar developmental challenges and concerns about the environment 2. It has a membership of 42 states from all over the world  Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A It has a membership of 44 states from all over the world Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS) is an intergovernmental organization of low-lying coastal and small island countries. Established in 1990, the main purpose of the alliance is to consolidate the voices of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) to address global warming. AOSIS has been very active from its inception, putting forward the first draft text in the Kyoto Protocol negotiations as early as 1994. At the 2013 Warsaw climate change conference, AOSIS also pushed for the establishment of an international mechanism on loss and damages stressed by the wreckage of Supertyphoon Haiyan.   Q.2 Which of the following are incorrect? 1. The Kyoto Protocol will expire in 2012. 2. The AOSIS proposal aims to extend its term upto 2017 Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. D The Protocol’s first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012. A second commitment period was agreed on in 2012, known as the Doha Amendment to the protocol, in which 37 countries have binding targets: Australia, the European Union (and its 28 member states), Belarus, Iceland, Kazakhstan, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland, and Ukraine. Belarus, Kazakhstan and Ukraine have stated that they may withdraw from the Protocol or not put into legal force the Amendment with second round targets. Japan, New Zealand and Russia have participated in Kyoto’s first-round but have not taken on new targets in the second commitment period.   Q.3 Which of the following are correct? 1. Cobalt 60 (60Co) is a radioactive isotope of cobalt 2. It is also used in the treatment of cancer Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C The main uses for 60Co are: •  As a tracer for cobalt in chemical reactions •  Sterilization of medical equipment. •  Radiation source for medical radiotherapy. Cobalt therapy, using beams of gamma rays from 60Co teletherapy machines to treat cancer, has been widely used since the 1950s. •  Radiation source for industrial radiography. •  Radiation source for leveling devices and thickness gauges. •  Radiation source for pest insect sterilization. •  As a radiation source for food irradiation and blood irradiation. •  As a radiation source for laboratory mutagenesis use.   Q.4 Which of the following are correct? 1. The ten nation Umbrella group countries pledged to act on climate change 2. Japan is not a part of the Umbrella group Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A The Umbrella Group is a loose coalition of non-EU developed countries which was formed against the backdrop of climate change negotiations. The Umbrella Group has always taken a position against extending the Kyoto Protocol. Although there is no formal list, the Group is usually made up of Australia, Canada, the United States, the Russian Federation, Iceland, Japan, New Zealand, Norway and Ukraine. This group has no official presidency .   Q.5 Which of the following are correct? 1. The UN organized a 10 day Work Summit on Sustainable Development (FWSSD) in Johhanesburg in 2002 2. It was attended by representatives of over 180 countries Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C   Q.6 Which of the following are correct? 1. Along with the Poznan work programme on technology transfer the only concrete outcome of the programme was the operationalization of the Adaptation fund 2. The COP/MOP adopted several decisions to make the Fund operational, including on agreements with the Global Environmental Facility and World Bank Codes : A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B At the UNFCCC COP13, the Parties requested the GEF to develop a program to promote investment in technology transfer. Its objective was to help developing countries adopt environmentally sound technologies.  So, in November 2008, the Strategic Program on Technology Transfer was discussed and approved by the GEF Council and the LDCF/SCCF Council. The UNFCCC COP14 welcomed the GEF’s Strategic Program on Technology Transfer, renaming it the Poznan Strategic Program on Technology Transfer. It further requested GEF to consider long-term implementation of the strategic program. Following the guidance, Poznan Strategic Program on Technology Transfer was shaped .   Q.7 Which of the following are incorrect ? 1. Ozone is an allotropic form of carbon 2. Ozone is also known as tri-atomic oxygen (O3) and is chemically very active Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. D Two allotropes of oxygen (dioxygen, O2, and ozone, O3), Ozone or trioxygen, is an inorganic molecule with the chemical formula O3. It is a pale blue gas with a distinctively pungent smell. It is an allotrope of oxygen that is much less stable than the diatomic allotrope O2, breaking down in the lower atmosphere to normal dioxygen.   Q.8 Which of the following are correct? 1. The ‘Green India’ project, launched by the Ministry with a view to cover six million hectares of degraded forest land through afforestation measures 2. It forms part of a ‘Green India Mission’ announced under the NAPCC Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It aims at protecting; restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing

Q.1 Statements: 1) Mountain of accumulation is the name given to Volcanic Mountains 2) Escarpment generally develops when a block moves down vertically along a fault plane Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.2 Statements: 1) Location of the epicenter of an earthquake may be estimated using the time-lag between the arrival of the “P” & “S” Waves 2) “L” Waves can not start until the “P” Waves hits the surface Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.3 Circum-pacific belt is highly prone to the occurrence of the earthquakes because it is a zone of : 1) Young folded mountains 2) Active Volcanoes 3) Divergent Plate Boundaries 4) Convergent Plate Boundaries Codes: A) 1,2,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,3,4 Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) Hawaii islands are known for the active volcanoes because they are situated over the hot plume 2) Helium is the most abundant gas emitted from the volcanoes Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.5 Which of the following are formed due to the collision of the Continental Plates ? 1) Alps 2) Himalayas 3) Rockies 4) Caucasus Mountains Codes: A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B   Q.6 Statements: 1) Origin of the Himalayas is due to the collision of the Indian subcontinent with Eurasian landmass. 2) The convergence of the crystal plates is often associated with the mountain building Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q. 7 Statements: 1) Intrusive Igneous rocks tend to have larger mineral crystals than extrusive igneous rocks. 2) Shale is the finest grained elastic sedimentary rock. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.8 Consider the following statements: 1) All sedimentary rocks are formed under water 2) All sedimentary rocks have layers 3) Loess is formed at the land surface & has no layer 4) Loess is a sedimentary rocks Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 2 & 4 D) 3 & 4 Ans. D   Q.9 Consider the following statements: Larger bodies of Intrusive Rocks called batholiths are : 1) Very commonly formed of granites though not invariably 2) Lens shaped masses of rock occupying the saddles of anticlines or the keels of synclines of the mountains. 3) Larger dome shaped masses the sides of whose plunge steeply to unknown depths. Codes: A) 1 & 2 B) 1,2,3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D   Q.10 In context with the earthquake, consider the following statements: 1) L waves travel along the surface of the earth’s crust 2) As the waves propagate, they move material in a path parallel to the direction of movement 3) S waves move objects at a right angles to their direction of motion. Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.11 Statements: 1) Chemical weathering is the most prominent in the semi-arid region 2) Mountaineous coast having presence of large numbers of narrow, steep-sided elongated & inundated coastal valley is known as Haff coast Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B  

Q.1 Consider the following: 1. Adjutant stork 2. Emperor penguin 3. Rattle snake Which of the above is/are in India? A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. A   Q.2 Ecosystem provides various services. Which of the following is/are supporting services? 1. nutrient recycling 2. medicinal resources 3. carbon sequestration Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 3 only Ans. A Medicinal resources are provisioning service. Carbon sequestration is regulating service.   Q.3 Which among these is/are a cryogenic indicator of climate change ? 1. ice sheets and ice chores 2. sea level changes 3. lacustrine deposits Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3  Ans. A Sea level changes – techtonic indicator ; Lacustrine deposits – geological indicator. Ice cores offer comprehensive records of past changes in polar climate and water cycle, aerosol deposition, natural forcings (including solar and volcanic activity), and global atmospheric composition.   Q.4 Two places in India, Rushikulya and Gahirmatha have become well known for: A) Mass egg-laying by sea turtles B) Captive breeding of Gharial C) Pre-historic cave paintings D) Uranium deposits Ans. D   Q.5 The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include: 1. National park 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserve 4. Tiger reserves Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. D   Q.6 The high altitude tropical forest which has Dwarfed trees is known as A) Apine forest B) Elfin forest C) Montane forest D) Sclerophyll forest Ans. B Elfin forest another name of chaparral forest, which is original woodlands, degraded in to scrub vegetation with scattered, stunted trees with tall bushes.   Q.7 Very thick A – horizon is often found in A) Chernozem soil B) Chestnut soil C) Brown forest soil D) Podzolic soil Ans. A   Q.8 Diorite is an example of A) Chemcially formed sedimentary rock B) Extrusive igneous rock C) Plutonic igneous rock D) Metamorphic rock Ans. C   Q.9 Consider the following 1) In India groundnut is principally grown as rain-fed crop 2) In India, sesamum is grown as kharif crop in northern states but in south it is generally grown during the rabi season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C    

Q.1 Which among the following is /are correct ? 1) Glacial valley floors are flat & their walls are steep, in contrast to the V shaped valleys of many mountain rivers. 2) Unlike river valleys, Valley glaciers at coastlines may erode their valley floors far deeper than sea level Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.2 Which of the following is the correct sequence of the relief zones seaward appearance from the coasts : 1) Continental slope 2) Continental Shelf 3) Deep sea plain 4) Oceanic Trench Codes: A) 2,1,4,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,4,3 D) 2,1,3,4 Ans.  D   Q.3 Statements: 1) Firods are the features produced by the glacial erosion 2) Glaciers descending from coastal mountains may reach the sea & continue their erosion on the seafloor Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) Dyke represents wall like formation of solidified magma & are mostly perpendicular to the beds of the sedimentary rocks. 2) Residual hill in the desert region is known as Inselberg. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.5 Statements: 1) Bajadas or piedmont alluvial plains extend for several miles away from a mountain front. 2) Series of adjacent alluvial fans sometimes coalesce to form an extensive piedmont alluvial plain which is also called Bajadas. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.6 Statements: 1) Rift valley or grabin is the result of the faulting. 2) Gorge or Canyon is a Steep walled & has a V shaped cross section Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.7 Statements: 1) Sea water temperature of Red Sea is higher than that of the Persian Gulf 2) Baltic Sea water is more saline than that of the Black Sea Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D   Q.8 Statements: 1) Benthos are the organisms that live at the bottom of the ocean 2) Pelazic deposits that are known as the Ooze occurs at the deep ocean floor Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.9 Statements: 1) Coastal Plains are created by the Continental shelf exposed by an emergence 2) Groin is known as the wall built at the right angles to the shorelines made up of huge rocks Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.10 Statements: 1) Hydrogenous deposits are formed very slowly 2) Glauconite is a biogenous sediment 3) Phosphorites are found either in the form of nodules or in the form of the crusts Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B    

1 Recently there was proposal to reintroduce an animal in India which became extinct in this country several decades ago. Which one of the following is the animal in question ? A) Cheetah B) Clouded leopard C) Double-humped camel D) Musk deer Ans. A     Q.2 Consider the following rivers : 1) Sankosh 2) Amochu 3) Subarnarekha 4) Jia Bhorelli Which of the above are the tributaries to Brahmaputra ? A) 1,2,3 B) Only 1 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,4 Ans. D     3 Consider the following animals : 1) Jaguar 2) Salt water crocodile 3) Snow leopard Which of the above is/are naturally found in India ? A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 3 Ans. B     Q.4 Consider the following animals : 1) Seals 2) Dolphins 3) Whales Which of the above are mammals ? A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D     Q.5 In which of the following region, countries Kyrgyzstan & Uzbekistan located ? A) Central Asia B) Middle East C) North Africa D) South Asia Ans. A     Q.6 We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of : A) Identification of earth-like planets in the universe B) Use of wireless short distance communication C) Minimum distance required between Earth & any artificial satellite revolving around it D) None of the above Ans. A     Q.7 In which of the following states famous ‘ Living Root Bridges “ found ? A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) Kerala D) Meghalaya Ans. D     Q.8 Consider the following places: 1) Ratnagiri 2) Sundarbans Which of the above places are known for the mangroves ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C  

Q.1 With regards to the living planet report-2014 released by the world wildlife fund, which among the following are correct ?   1) Living planet index which measures more than 10,000 representative populations of mammals, birds , reptiles , amphibians & fish has declined by the 52% since 1970   2) The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in Africa   Codes:   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in South America   Q.2 Which among the following are correct ?   1) Pirotan island  –  Gujarat   2) Bhagwan Mahavir – Goa   3) Satkosia Gorge – Odisha   Codes:   A) 1 & 3   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 2   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Shravati valley – Karnataka   Q.3 Statements :   1) Sideral day is shorter than solar day   2) The motion of the earth in its orbit around the sun around the sun is termed as the revolution   Codes:   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C   Q.4 Statements :   1) India’s offshore & deep sea fish catch is very poor considering the marine potential   2) Indian coast does not have many gulfs , bays, estuaries & backwaters   Codes:   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C   Q.5 The earth without rotational movement would result into :   1) No sun rise & sun set   2) No occurrence of day & night cycle   3) Only one season   Codes:   A) 1 & 2   B) Only 1   C) 1,2,3   D) 2 & 3   Ans. C   Q.6 With reference to the cold waves which among the following are correct ?   1) There is lack of maritime influence   2) Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region   3) Air mass come from polar regions to the northern India   Codes:   A) 1,2,3   B) 1 & 2   C) 2 & 3   D) 1 & 2   Ans. B   Q.7 Horizontal wind circulation near the earth’s surface is due to the :   1) Pressure gradient   2) Frictional force   3) Coriolis force   Codes:   A) Only 1   B) 1 & 3   C) 1,2,3   D) 1 & 2   Ans. A   Q.8 The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—   A) Copper   B) Lead   C) Cadmium   D) Mercury   Ans. B   Q.9 Which among the following was the theme of the Interational Day of the Preservation of Ozone layer 2014 ?   A) Ozone day – A healthy atmosphere , the future we want   B) Protecting our atmosphere for generations to come   C) HCFC phase out : A unique opportunity   D) Ozone Layer Protection : The Mission Goes On   Ans. D   Q.10 The chief racial groups constituting India’s population are the Dravidian, Aryans, and Mongoloids. Where do the Mongoloids live?   A) Western India   B) Southern India   C) North- Eastern India   D) South- western India   Ans. C    

Q.1 Which of the following conditions are needed for the Rainfed farming ? 1) Presence of moisture 2) Double cropping system is present 3) More than 750 mm of rainfall Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 Statements: 1) Escarpment & Fold mountains are the product of the vulcanicity. 2) Hawaiian type of volcanic eruptions is usually explosive. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D   Q.3 Statements : 1) River system can continue to cut down its valley at approximately the same rate as uplift & so maintains its general pattern & direction 2) In case of an antecedent drainage system river is said to have originated before period of uplift & folding of land as a result of the earth movement Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.4 Statements: 1) In deep Ocean Primary production occurs near hydrothermal vents 2) Over there microbes produce food through Chemosynthesis which forms the basis for a food chain Which among above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.5 Statements: 1) Fold mountains run parallel & close to the coast while Continental shelf is narrow or absent 2) Average depth for continental shelf is above 1000 metres 3) Submarine canyons are mostly found in continental slope 4) Submarine flat topped mountains are called guyots Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) Only 3 & 4 Ans. A   Q.6 Statements: 1) Tropical seas in India are rich in fish species but there are few important fishing grounds around the country 2) Quantity of fish of a particular species is lacking & hence not commercially exploitable Which among above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.7 Which among the following are rift Valleys ? 1) Dead Sea 2) Red Sea 3) Midland Plain of Scotland Codes: A) 1 & 2 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 Statements: 1) Equatorial counter current is more developed in the Pacific Ocean than in the Atlantic Ocean 2) Equatorial Counter Current flows in the westward direction Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.9 Statements: 1) Mid-Atlantic Ridge surfaces above the sea level in Iceland 2) Baltic sea remains open for International trade throughout the year 3) Baltic sea lies in the warm Temperature zone 4) San Andreas Fault is a Transform Fault Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C   Q.10 Statements: 1) Boulder Fields are the angular blocks produced by the separation & sheltering of joint blocks 2) Exfoliation is the formation of the curved rock shells. Which among above is/are correct ? Codes: A) Only 1 B)  Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D  

Q.1 Consider the following : 1) Coal pits 2) Sewers 3) Volcanic eruptions Which among the above are the sources of H2s in the environment ? A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 A transition zone or region separating two biomes is known as : A) Ecological niche B) Ecocline C) Ecotone D) Ecotype Ans. C   Q.3 Eutrophication of water bodies is mainly caused by : A) Carbonates & Oxides B) Hydrocarbons & Metals C) Carbonates & Sulphates D) Phosphates & Nitrates Ans. D   Q.4 Which among the following is a secondary pollutant ? A) Benzene B) Nitrogen oxide C) Ozone D) Sulphur di oxide Ans. C   Q.5 Which of the following pollutants causes surface deterioration of leather goods ? A) Hydrogen Sulphide B) Nitrogen oxide C) Ozone D) Sulphur dioxide Ans. D Q.6 Which of the following region has lowest atmospheric humidity ? A) Monsoon B) Equatorial C) Prairies D) Polar Ans. D   Q.7 Cartagena Protocol on biosafety deals with : A) establishing or promoting in situ conservation facilities for rare & endangered organisms B) Maintaining the world wide network of gene banks for all the known flora & fauna C) Monitoring & regulating development of living modified organisms D) Ensuring safe handling , safe usage & safe trans-boundary movement of living modified organisms Ans. D   Q.8 Which among the following regions receives the highest annual average monsoon rainfall from June to September ? A) Gangetic West Bengal B) Western Uttar Pradesh C) Eastern Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab Ans. A   Q.9 Other than Nitrogen & Oxygen which among the following is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere ? A) Argon B) Carbon di oxide C) Methane D) Hydrogen Ans. A