UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY

Raashid Shah

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-4

Q. 1 Consider the following statements : 1) Every state has a high court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction 2) Every High Court shall have a chief justice & other judges who shall be appointed by the President 3) Each High Court shall be a court of record Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3] C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2  In context with the Impeachment process of Judge of higher judiciary, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Judge may be removed through motion in Parliament with 2/3rd support in each house 2) The impeachment motion can be initiated in any house of the Parliament 3) An impeachment has to be moved by either 100 lok sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3 With reference to the Jurisdiction of the High Court which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Power of supritendence over all the other state courts 2) Power to transfer the cases from the other subordinate courts in the state to itself 3) Power to appoint the officers & servants of the high court Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.4 4With reference to the Governor which among the following statements are correct ? 1) There shall be a governor of each state & a same person can be made governor of more than one states 2) Executive authority of the state is vested in the Governor 3) He/she may not be a member of either house of the Parliament or the member of the legislature 4) President can grant the pardon but Governor does not enjoy this power Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the Governor ? 1) To summon & prorogue either house of the state legislature & dissolve the state assembly 2) He/she appoints 1/6th of the state legislative council 3) Nominates 1 member in the legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian community 4) Power to make laws through the ordinances in the state  Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.6 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor 2) No-confidence motion against any minister leads to the resignation of the entire council 3) There shall be council of ministers & advise the governor in exercise his functions, except those required to be done by the Governor Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Determination of the legislative council is determined by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council can be abolished by the 2/3rd majority of the Parliament 3) Resolution  create & abolish is to be assented by the President Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statmnets are correct ? 1) 1/3rd members of the legislative council are elected by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council elects the deputy chairman 3) Legislative council is a permanent body but 1/3rd retire every two years Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 With reference to the state legislature which of the following statements are correct ? 1) State legislature can make laws on the subjects which are in the state as well as in the concurrent list 2) State legislature exercise the complete control of the finances 3) No taxes can be levied without the approval of the state legislature Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D    

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-4 Read More »

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-3

Q.1 Consider the statements 1.Tribal areas comes under PESA(panchayat Extension to Scheduled Area ) Act 1996 2.In tribal areas joint forest management committees will be under the control of gram sabhas & panchayats. Select the correct answer A)1 only B)2 only C)Both are correct D)None of the above Ans. C   Q.2 Who is the president of the Council of Scientific & Industrial research ? A) President of India B) Union minister of Science & Technology C) Prime Minister of India D) Vice President of India Ans. B   Q.3 Statements: 1) Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislature with respect to a matter in the state list 2) Resolutions approving the proclamation of  emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men & women 2) The constitution of India does not define backward classes Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B   Q.5 What does 104th Constitution Amendment bill relates to ? A) Providing quota to the religious minorities in the services under the Government B) Providing Quota to socially & educationally backward classes in private educational institutions C) Abolition of legislative council in certain states D) Introduction of dual citizenship for the persons of Indian origin living outside India Ans. B   Q.6 Which among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provisions under the article of constitution ? A) Election Commission of India B) University Grants commission C) National Human Rights commission D) Central Vigilance Commission Ans. A   Q.7 Statements: 1) A person who has held office as a permanent judge of a High court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court 2) A person is not qualified for appointment as a judge of a High Court in India unless he has atleast5 years held a judicial office in the territory of India Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.8 Consider the statements in respect of the Financial emergency under the Article 360 of the Constitution of India : 1) A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of 2 months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of parliament 2) If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation it is competent for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries & allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the supreme court & high court Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.9 Statements: 1) Chairman of committee on public accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the lok sabha 2) Committee on Public Accounts comprises members of Lok Sabha, members of Rajya Sabha & few eminent persons of industry & trade Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.10 Statements: 1) Ministries of the Government of India are created by the Prime minister on the advice of the cabinet secretary 2) Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the President of India in the advice of the Prime Minister Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B    

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POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-2

Q.1 Consider the following statements : 1) Every state has a high court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction 2) Every High Court shall have a chief justice & other judges who shall be appointed by the President 3) Each High Court shall be a court of record Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3] C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 In context with the Impeachment process of Judge of higher judiciary, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Judge may be removed through motion in Parliament with 2/3rd support in each house 2) The impeachment motion can be initiated in any house of the Parliament 3) An impeachment has to be moved by either 100 lok sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3  With reference to the Jurisdiction of the High Court which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Power of supritendence over all the other state courts 2) Power to transfer the cases from the other subordinate courts in the state to itself 3) Power to appoint the officers & servants of the high court Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.4 With reference to the Governor which among the following statements are correct ? 1) There shall be a governor of each state & a same person can be made governor of more than one states 2) Executive authority of the state is vested in the Governor 3) He/she may not be a member of either house of the Parliament or the member of the legislature 4) President can grant the pardon but Governor does not enjoy this power Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the Governor ? 1) To summon & prorogue either house of the state legislature & dissolve the state assembly 2) He/she appoints 1/6th of the state legislative council 3) Nominates 1 member in the legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian community 4) Power to make laws through the ordinances in the state  Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.6 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor 2) No-confidence motion against any minister leads to the resignation of the entire council 3) There shall be council of ministers & advise the governor in exercise his functions, except those required to be done by the Governor Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Determination of the legislative council is determined by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council can be abolished by the 2/3rd majority of the Parliament 3) Resolution t create & abolish is to be assented by the President Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statmnets are correct ? 1) 1/3rd members of the legislative council are elected by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council elects the deputy chairman 3) Legislative council is a permanent body but 1/3rd retire every two years Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 With reference to the state legislature which of the following statements are correct ? 1) State legislature can make laws on the subjects which are in the state as well as in the concurrent list 2) State legislature exercise the complete control of the finances 3) No taxes can be levied without the approval of the state legislature Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.11 Statements: 1) Union territories are administered by the President through an administrator 2) President may appoint a governor of any adjoining state as administrator of Union territory 3) Power to determine the structure of administration in UT is vested in the Parliament Codes: 4) Parliament can constitute HC for UT Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.12 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Kolkata High Court   –   A & N islands 2) Punjab & Haryana High Court  – Chandigarh 3) Kerala High Court               – Lakshadweep 4) Chennai High Court            –  Pondicherry Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.13 Which of the following are included in the Union executive ? 1) President 2) Vice President 3) Council of Ministers 4) Attorney General Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) Only  1 & 2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.14 Which of the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans.

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-2 Read More »

POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQ SET-1

Q.1 Which of the following expenses require sanction of Parliament ? 1) Defence expenditure 2) Debt charges of the government 3) Maintenance expenditure of embassies 4) Salary & allowances of President & CAG Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 4 C) 1 &2 D) 3 & 4 Ans. A   Q.2 Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of  India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). If he seeks such an advice. III. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizen. Codes: A) I & III B) II & III C) I & II D) All are correct Ans. C   Q.3 Which of the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary& Presidential form of Govt.? A) Power of Judicial review B) Method of election of President/Head of State C) Legislative supremacy in law making D) Relation between the legislature & the executive Ans. B Parliamentary Government: The executive is not separated from the legislature. The members of council of ministers are the members of legislature. The executive is accountable to the legislature. The executive loses power when it loses the confidence of the legislature. In the Parliamentary government, one person is head of state while another persons is head of government. In the Parliamentary systems, the Prime Minister is most powerful. In the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister can appoint only the members of parliament as minister. In the Parliamentary system, the tenure of the executive is not fixed. The Council of Ministers is dismissed if it loses the confidence of the legislature before its tenure is over. The Parliamentary government is more democratic, because the executive • (council of ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament). There is less of separation of powers in the Parliamentary government. During war and other emergencies, the Parliamentary government is relatively less effective and successful. Presidential Government: The executive is completely separated I from the legislature. The members of executive are not the members of the legislature. The executive is not accountable to the II legislature. The legislature cannot remove the executive from power] through no-confidence motion. In the Presidential government, i same person is head of state as well as head of government. In the Presidential system, the President is most powerful. In the Presidential system, the President appoint persons from outside the legislature as minister. In the Presidential system, executive has a fixed tenure normally, the executive head (President) stays in power for the whole term. It is not easy to remove him from power through impeachment. The Presidential government is democratic, because the executive (President) is not accountable to the legislature.   Q.4 Examine statements carefully & select the answers to these items using the code given below: Statement I: Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding officer of the House. Statement II : When the Presiding officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. A) Both the statements are individually true & statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Ans. B The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House. The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance. The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law. A matter which falls within the jurisdiction of a State Government is inadmissible, but a matter concerning the constitutional developments in a State or atrocities on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections of the society which bring the Union Government into picture may be considered for admission on merits. The refusal to give his consent is in the absolute discretion of the Chair and he is not bound to give any reasons therefor. Before the commencement of a session notices of adjournment motion can at the earliest be given on and after the date notified for the purpose in Bulletin Part-II. This is normally three working days before the commencement of the session. Notices received prior to that date are not considered valid and are returned to the members. Telegraphic notice is not valid in view of provisions of Rule 332. During the session period, notice of an adjournment motion should be given by 10.00 hours on the day on which the motion is proposed to be made. Notices received after 10.00 hours are treated as notices given for the next sitting. As a convention, adjournment motions are not taken up on the day of the President’s Address. Notices received for that day are treated as notices for the next sitting.   Q.5 Which of the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-24

FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography   Q.1 Which among the following are the fish eating birds ?   1. White breasted cormorants   2. Grey pelicans   3. Flamingo   4. White head gannets or piqueros   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1,2,4   B) 1 & 2   C) Only 1 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. A   FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA   Q.2 Pink Bollworm & cry toxins are associated with which of the following ?   A) Transgenic seeds   B) Bt cotton   C) Cisgenic organisms   D) Bt Brinjal   Ans. B Bt cotton is ineffective against many cotton pests such as plant bugs, stink bugs, and aphids; depending on circumstances it may be desirable to use insecticides in prevention. The gene coding for Bt toxin has been inserted into cotton as a transgene, causing it to produce this natural insecticide in its tissues. In many regions, the main pests in commercial cotton are lepidopteran larvae, which are killed by the Bt protein in the genetically modified cotton they eat. This eliminates the need to use large amounts of broad-spectrum insecticides to kill lepidopteran pests (some of which have developed pyrethroidresistance). This spares natural insect predators in the farm ecology and further contributes to noninsecticide pest management. The important advantages of Bt cotton are briefly : • Increases yield of cotton due to effective control of three types of bollworms, viz. American, Spotted and Pink bollworms. • Insects belonged to Lepidoptera (Bollworms) are sensitive to crystalline endotoxic protein produced by Bt gene which in turn protects cotton from bollworms. • Reduction in insecticide use in the cultivation of Bt cotton in which bollworms are major pests. • Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation (depending on seed cost versus insecticide costs). • Reduction in environmental pollution by the use of insecticides. • Bt cotton exhibit genetic resistance or inbuilt resistance which is a permanent type of resistance and not affected by environmental factors. Thus protects crop from bollworms. • Bt cotton is ecofriendly and does not have adverse effect on parasites, predators, beneficial insecticides and organisms present in soil. • It promotes multiplication of parasites and predators which help in controlling the bollworms by feeding on larvae and eggs of bollworm. • No health hazards due to rare use of insecticides (particularly who is engaged in spraying of insecticides).   FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA   Q.3 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the slurry of biogas plant ?   1. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry increases the yield of major crops   2. It has shown better yields in vegetable crops & in fodder crops.   3.It has been proved to completely remove the weed growth & their roots   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 2 & 3   D) Only 1 & 2   Ans. B The effectiveness of biogas plant slurry in combination with chemical fertilizers was studied for the production of various crops. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry decreased the yields of major crops, i.e. wheat, bajra, jawar and mustard. Application of slurry to replace half the nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in vegetable crops while replacement of the total nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in fodder crops. Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease. FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography   Q.4 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the river Barak ?   1. Maku   2. Shyok   3. Tuivai   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) Only 1   D) 1,2,3   Ans. B   The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai.   FRAMED FROM NCERT   Q.5  Which among the following is/are the wetlands ?   1. Swamps   2. Mangroves   3. Ferns   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 1,2,3   D) 2 & 3   Ans. C Wetlands occur naturally on every continent except Antarctica,the largest including the Amazon River basin, the West Siberian Plain,and the Pantanal in South America. The water found in wetlands can be freshwater, brackish, or saltwater. The main wetland types include swamps, marshes, bogs, and ferns; and sub-types include mangrove, carr, pocosin, and varzea. The UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment determined that environmental degradation is more prominent within wetland systems than any other ecosystem on Earth Wetlands have also been described as ecotones, providing a transition between dry land and water bodies. The most important factor producing wetlands is flooding. The duration of flooding determines whether the resulting wetland has aquatic, marsh or swamp vegetation. Other important factors include fertility, natural disturbance, competition, herbivory, burial and salinity.When peat accumulates, bogs and ferns arise. FRAMED FROM ICSE CLASS 7TH GEOGRAPHY   Q.6 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?   1. Sunabeda tiger reserve  :  West Bengal   2. Guru Ghasidas     :  Chhattisgarh   3. Ratapani Tiger Reserve :  Rajasthan   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 3   D) Only 2   Ans. D  

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-23

Q.1 Which of the following are incorrect? 1. The Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS) is a coalition of small island and low-lying coastal countries that share similar developmental challenges and concerns about the environment 2. It has a membership of 42 states from all over the world  Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A It has a membership of 44 states from all over the world Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS) is an intergovernmental organization of low-lying coastal and small island countries. Established in 1990, the main purpose of the alliance is to consolidate the voices of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) to address global warming. AOSIS has been very active from its inception, putting forward the first draft text in the Kyoto Protocol negotiations as early as 1994. At the 2013 Warsaw climate change conference, AOSIS also pushed for the establishment of an international mechanism on loss and damages stressed by the wreckage of Supertyphoon Haiyan.   Q.2 Which of the following are incorrect? 1. The Kyoto Protocol will expire in 2012. 2. The AOSIS proposal aims to extend its term upto 2017 Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. D The Protocol’s first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in 2012. A second commitment period was agreed on in 2012, known as the Doha Amendment to the protocol, in which 37 countries have binding targets: Australia, the European Union (and its 28 member states), Belarus, Iceland, Kazakhstan, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland, and Ukraine. Belarus, Kazakhstan and Ukraine have stated that they may withdraw from the Protocol or not put into legal force the Amendment with second round targets. Japan, New Zealand and Russia have participated in Kyoto’s first-round but have not taken on new targets in the second commitment period.   Q.3 Which of the following are correct? 1. Cobalt 60 (60Co) is a radioactive isotope of cobalt 2. It is also used in the treatment of cancer Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C The main uses for 60Co are: •  As a tracer for cobalt in chemical reactions •  Sterilization of medical equipment. •  Radiation source for medical radiotherapy. Cobalt therapy, using beams of gamma rays from 60Co teletherapy machines to treat cancer, has been widely used since the 1950s. •  Radiation source for industrial radiography. •  Radiation source for leveling devices and thickness gauges. •  Radiation source for pest insect sterilization. •  As a radiation source for food irradiation and blood irradiation. •  As a radiation source for laboratory mutagenesis use.   Q.4 Which of the following are correct? 1. The ten nation Umbrella group countries pledged to act on climate change 2. Japan is not a part of the Umbrella group Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A The Umbrella Group is a loose coalition of non-EU developed countries which was formed against the backdrop of climate change negotiations. The Umbrella Group has always taken a position against extending the Kyoto Protocol. Although there is no formal list, the Group is usually made up of Australia, Canada, the United States, the Russian Federation, Iceland, Japan, New Zealand, Norway and Ukraine. This group has no official presidency .   Q.5 Which of the following are correct? 1. The UN organized a 10 day Work Summit on Sustainable Development (FWSSD) in Johhanesburg in 2002 2. It was attended by representatives of over 180 countries Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C   Q.6 Which of the following are correct? 1. Along with the Poznan work programme on technology transfer the only concrete outcome of the programme was the operationalization of the Adaptation fund 2. The COP/MOP adopted several decisions to make the Fund operational, including on agreements with the Global Environmental Facility and World Bank Codes : A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B At the UNFCCC COP13, the Parties requested the GEF to develop a program to promote investment in technology transfer. Its objective was to help developing countries adopt environmentally sound technologies.  So, in November 2008, the Strategic Program on Technology Transfer was discussed and approved by the GEF Council and the LDCF/SCCF Council. The UNFCCC COP14 welcomed the GEF’s Strategic Program on Technology Transfer, renaming it the Poznan Strategic Program on Technology Transfer. It further requested GEF to consider long-term implementation of the strategic program. Following the guidance, Poznan Strategic Program on Technology Transfer was shaped .   Q.7 Which of the following are incorrect ? 1. Ozone is an allotropic form of carbon 2. Ozone is also known as tri-atomic oxygen (O3) and is chemically very active Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. D Two allotropes of oxygen (dioxygen, O2, and ozone, O3), Ozone or trioxygen, is an inorganic molecule with the chemical formula O3. It is a pale blue gas with a distinctively pungent smell. It is an allotrope of oxygen that is much less stable than the diatomic allotrope O2, breaking down in the lower atmosphere to normal dioxygen.   Q.8 Which of the following are correct? 1. The ‘Green India’ project, launched by the Ministry with a view to cover six million hectares of degraded forest land through afforestation measures 2. It forms part of a ‘Green India Mission’ announced under the NAPCC Codes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It aims at protecting; restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing

GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-23 Read More »

GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-22

Q.1 Statements: 1) Mountain of accumulation is the name given to Volcanic Mountains 2) Escarpment generally develops when a block moves down vertically along a fault plane Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.2 Statements: 1) Location of the epicenter of an earthquake may be estimated using the time-lag between the arrival of the “P” & “S” Waves 2) “L” Waves can not start until the “P” Waves hits the surface Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.3 Circum-pacific belt is highly prone to the occurrence of the earthquakes because it is a zone of : 1) Young folded mountains 2) Active Volcanoes 3) Divergent Plate Boundaries 4) Convergent Plate Boundaries Codes: A) 1,2,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,3,4 Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) Hawaii islands are known for the active volcanoes because they are situated over the hot plume 2) Helium is the most abundant gas emitted from the volcanoes Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.5 Which of the following are formed due to the collision of the Continental Plates ? 1) Alps 2) Himalayas 3) Rockies 4) Caucasus Mountains Codes: A) 2,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B   Q.6 Statements: 1) Origin of the Himalayas is due to the collision of the Indian subcontinent with Eurasian landmass. 2) The convergence of the crystal plates is often associated with the mountain building Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q. 7 Statements: 1) Intrusive Igneous rocks tend to have larger mineral crystals than extrusive igneous rocks. 2) Shale is the finest grained elastic sedimentary rock. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.8 Consider the following statements: 1) All sedimentary rocks are formed under water 2) All sedimentary rocks have layers 3) Loess is formed at the land surface & has no layer 4) Loess is a sedimentary rocks Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 2 & 4 D) 3 & 4 Ans. D   Q.9 Consider the following statements: Larger bodies of Intrusive Rocks called batholiths are : 1) Very commonly formed of granites though not invariably 2) Lens shaped masses of rock occupying the saddles of anticlines or the keels of synclines of the mountains. 3) Larger dome shaped masses the sides of whose plunge steeply to unknown depths. Codes: A) 1 & 2 B) 1,2,3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D   Q.10 In context with the earthquake, consider the following statements: 1) L waves travel along the surface of the earth’s crust 2) As the waves propagate, they move material in a path parallel to the direction of movement 3) S waves move objects at a right angles to their direction of motion. Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.11 Statements: 1) Chemical weathering is the most prominent in the semi-arid region 2) Mountaineous coast having presence of large numbers of narrow, steep-sided elongated & inundated coastal valley is known as Haff coast Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B  

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-21

Q.1 Consider the following: 1. Adjutant stork 2. Emperor penguin 3. Rattle snake Which of the above is/are in India? A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. A   Q.2 Ecosystem provides various services. Which of the following is/are supporting services? 1. nutrient recycling 2. medicinal resources 3. carbon sequestration Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 3 only Ans. A Medicinal resources are provisioning service. Carbon sequestration is regulating service.   Q.3 Which among these is/are a cryogenic indicator of climate change ? 1. ice sheets and ice chores 2. sea level changes 3. lacustrine deposits Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3  Ans. A Sea level changes – techtonic indicator ; Lacustrine deposits – geological indicator. Ice cores offer comprehensive records of past changes in polar climate and water cycle, aerosol deposition, natural forcings (including solar and volcanic activity), and global atmospheric composition.   Q.4 Two places in India, Rushikulya and Gahirmatha have become well known for: A) Mass egg-laying by sea turtles B) Captive breeding of Gharial C) Pre-historic cave paintings D) Uranium deposits Ans. D   Q.5 The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include: 1. National park 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserve 4. Tiger reserves Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. D   Q.6 The high altitude tropical forest which has Dwarfed trees is known as A) Apine forest B) Elfin forest C) Montane forest D) Sclerophyll forest Ans. B Elfin forest another name of chaparral forest, which is original woodlands, degraded in to scrub vegetation with scattered, stunted trees with tall bushes.   Q.7 Very thick A – horizon is often found in A) Chernozem soil B) Chestnut soil C) Brown forest soil D) Podzolic soil Ans. A   Q.8 Diorite is an example of A) Chemcially formed sedimentary rock B) Extrusive igneous rock C) Plutonic igneous rock D) Metamorphic rock Ans. C   Q.9 Consider the following 1) In India groundnut is principally grown as rain-fed crop 2) In India, sesamum is grown as kharif crop in northern states but in south it is generally grown during the rabi season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C    

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-20

Q.1 Which among the following is /are correct ? 1) Glacial valley floors are flat & their walls are steep, in contrast to the V shaped valleys of many mountain rivers. 2) Unlike river valleys, Valley glaciers at coastlines may erode their valley floors far deeper than sea level Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.2 Which of the following is the correct sequence of the relief zones seaward appearance from the coasts : 1) Continental slope 2) Continental Shelf 3) Deep sea plain 4) Oceanic Trench Codes: A) 2,1,4,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,4,3 D) 2,1,3,4 Ans.  D   Q.3 Statements: 1) Firods are the features produced by the glacial erosion 2) Glaciers descending from coastal mountains may reach the sea & continue their erosion on the seafloor Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) Dyke represents wall like formation of solidified magma & are mostly perpendicular to the beds of the sedimentary rocks. 2) Residual hill in the desert region is known as Inselberg. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.5 Statements: 1) Bajadas or piedmont alluvial plains extend for several miles away from a mountain front. 2) Series of adjacent alluvial fans sometimes coalesce to form an extensive piedmont alluvial plain which is also called Bajadas. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.6 Statements: 1) Rift valley or grabin is the result of the faulting. 2) Gorge or Canyon is a Steep walled & has a V shaped cross section Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.7 Statements: 1) Sea water temperature of Red Sea is higher than that of the Persian Gulf 2) Baltic Sea water is more saline than that of the Black Sea Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D   Q.8 Statements: 1) Benthos are the organisms that live at the bottom of the ocean 2) Pelazic deposits that are known as the Ooze occurs at the deep ocean floor Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.9 Statements: 1) Coastal Plains are created by the Continental shelf exposed by an emergence 2) Groin is known as the wall built at the right angles to the shorelines made up of huge rocks Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.10 Statements: 1) Hydrogenous deposits are formed very slowly 2) Glauconite is a biogenous sediment 3) Phosphorites are found either in the form of nodules or in the form of the crusts Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B    

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GEOGRAPHY MCQ SET-19

1 Recently there was proposal to reintroduce an animal in India which became extinct in this country several decades ago. Which one of the following is the animal in question ? A) Cheetah B) Clouded leopard C) Double-humped camel D) Musk deer Ans. A     Q.2 Consider the following rivers : 1) Sankosh 2) Amochu 3) Subarnarekha 4) Jia Bhorelli Which of the above are the tributaries to Brahmaputra ? A) 1,2,3 B) Only 1 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,4 Ans. D     3 Consider the following animals : 1) Jaguar 2) Salt water crocodile 3) Snow leopard Which of the above is/are naturally found in India ? A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 3 Ans. B     Q.4 Consider the following animals : 1) Seals 2) Dolphins 3) Whales Which of the above are mammals ? A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D     Q.5 In which of the following region, countries Kyrgyzstan & Uzbekistan located ? A) Central Asia B) Middle East C) North Africa D) South Asia Ans. A     Q.6 We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of : A) Identification of earth-like planets in the universe B) Use of wireless short distance communication C) Minimum distance required between Earth & any artificial satellite revolving around it D) None of the above Ans. A     Q.7 In which of the following states famous ‘ Living Root Bridges “ found ? A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) Kerala D) Meghalaya Ans. D     Q.8 Consider the following places: 1) Ratnagiri 2) Sundarbans Which of the above places are known for the mangroves ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C  

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