UPSC ONLINE ACADEMY

Raashid Shah

ECONOMICS MCQ SET-30- FRAMED FROM DIFFERENT SOURCES

MOCK Q.432- FRAMED FROM SHANKAR IAS <br>Q.1 Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to the Climate Investment Funds ? 1. The operation of the Financial Mechanism is partly entrusted to the Global Environment Facility (GEF) 2. These funds were approved by MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency) in 2008 to address climate change Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) were designed by developed and developing countries and are implemented with the multilateral development banks (MDBs) to bridge the financing and learning gap between now and the next international climate change agreement. CIFs are two distinct funds: the Clean Technology Fund and the Strategic Climate Fund. The CIFs are additional to existing Official Development Assistance (ODA) and aim to enable countries to continue on their development path and achieve the Millennium Development Goals. These funds will be operated in close coordination with existing bilateral and multilateral efforts. The funds were approved by the World Bank Board of Directors in July 2008 and on September 26, 2008 received pledges of US$6.5 billion. The Climate Investment Funds include the: •   Clean Technology Fund •   Strategic Climate Fund •   Forest Investment Program •   Pilot Program for Climate Resilience •   Scaling Up Renewable Energy Program, and •   Private Sector MOCK Q.426- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY Q.2 With reference to the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), consider the following statements : 1. TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods 2.TFA requires developed countries should reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies 3. It contains provisions for technical & financial assistance in trade facilitation Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) : TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods TFA contains provisions for technical assistance & capacity building in trade facilitation Provision of Fourth Ministerial Meeting in Doha, Qatar (2001) : TFA requires developed countries should reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies MOCK Q.425- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY Q.3 Which one of the following does not comes under the category of Back Office Outsourcing ? A) Call centre services B) Banking C) Media & Entertainment D) Travel & Hospitality Ans. A Call centre services : Front Office Outsourcing Back Office Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Services An organization’s back office management can significantly impact its success. Large volumes of data accrue on a daily basis, from various transactional processes such as order fulfilment, applications processing, transaction processing, billing, and collections that require effective back office solutions. Invensis is a reputed leader in empowering numerous global businesses and organizations through high quality back office BPO services that promote enhanced business efficiency and improved bottom-line. back office outsourcing services extend across industries such as: •   Finance •   Banking •   Insurance •   Healthcare •   Manufacturing & Chemical •   Travel & Hospitality •   Media & Entertainment •   Utilities •   Logistics and Customs Brokerage •   Automotive •   Education •   Mortgage •   Government MOCK Q.420- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q.4 On account of which of the following reasons Chabahar port is relevant for India ? 1. Chabahar port will increase dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan 2. In October 2017, India began shipment of Rice, Wheat & Pulses to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar 3. Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3, Ans. A -Chabahar port will reduce dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan – In October 2017, India began shipment of Wheat to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar – Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan MOCK Q.419- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q.5 With reference to the Official Development Assistance, consider the following statements : 1. ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time in 1959 2.Japan is the only developed nation  that signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with India Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time is 1969 India is the largest recipient of Japanese Official Development Assistance (ODA) MOCK Q.407- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU” Q.6 Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme ? A) It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups B) It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills C) It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund science projects D) It is the scheme implemented by Institution’s Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing opportunities for a life-long learning Ans. C SHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills Functioning of the Scheme: The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) which provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every industry. The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) initially in the Banking Finance Insurance Services (BFSI), Retail,

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ECONOMICS MCQ SET-29- FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA

MOCK Q.508 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.1 Global Liveability Index report is published by :   A) Global Infrastructure Hub   B) Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)   C) Joint Research Centre of European Commission   D) Cornell University   Ans. B   EIU releases Global Liveability Index MOCK Q.503 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.2 Which among the following products are offered by the Indian Post Payment Banks ?   Direct Benefit Transfers   Saving & Current Accounts   Utility payments   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   The payments bank, where the Indian government holds 100 per cent equity,   The IPPBs will offer a range of products such as savings and current accounts, money transfer, direct benefit transfers, bill and utility payments, and enterprise and merchant payments.   On August 29, 2018, the Union Cabinet had approved 80 per cent increase in spending for IPPB from Rs 800 crore to Rs 1435 crore.   MOCK Q.499 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.3 With reference to the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan OR SUMAN Scheme, consider the following statements :   It aims to provide institutional delivery at every private & public health care facilities   Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn care visits   The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. C   Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan   The Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan initiative or SUMAN scheme aims to provide dignified and quality health care at no cost to every woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.   Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn care visits.   The scheme will enable zero expense access to the identification and management of complications during and after the pregnancy. The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from home to the health facility and drop back after discharge (minimum 48 hrs).   The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities.   The scheme will ensure that there is zero-tolerance for denial of services to such patients. MOCK Q.485 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.4 Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund ?   It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)   It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB)   Select the correct answer using the codes given below   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C   About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund The fund was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2015 to fund new and rejuvenate stressed projects so that stalled investment cycle is revived in the country.   It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).   It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB).   On the basis of the above early warning signals, the branch maintaining the account should consider forwarding the stressed accounts with aggregate loan limits above 10 lakh rupees to the Committee for Stressed MSMEs within five working days for a suitable corrective action plan (CAP).   As regards accounts with aggregate loan limits up to 10 lakh rupees identified as SMA-2, the account should be mandatorily examined for CAP by the branch itself under the authority of the branch manager /designated official as decided by the bank.   The option under CAP may include Rectification, Restructuring and Recovery among others.   MOCK Q.478 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.5 Which among the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Angel Fund ?   It has been launched very recently under which the first generation entrepreneurs can get a maximum loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa   The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 9 months during which no interest rates will be charged   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. D   It has been launched in 2013 by Assam Chief Minister, under which the first generation entrepreneurs can get a maximum loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa   The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 10 months during which no interest rates will be charged MOCK Q.477 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.6 With reference to the Equity Index, consider the following statements :   It was launched in collaboration with the world bank which will help raise funds for products seeking to mitigate climate change   It is the first equity Index linked with the Green Bond   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct

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ECONOMICS MCQ SET-28- FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA

COPYRIGHT Q.528 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.1 With reference to the Libra cryptocurrency, consider the following statements :   The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international currencies   Demand or scarcity are the driving factors of the Libra currency   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   What is the difference between Bitcoin and Libra cryptocurrency?   Though popular, Bitcoin cryptocurrency has been known to be volatile, especially in recent years. Unlike Bitcoin, Libra will be backed by a reserve of real assets, meaning that the value of the currency will be linked to something with intrinsic value rather than driven by demand or scarcity.   The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international currencies. The reserve will be administered by a non-profit associated headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.   What is Libra Cryptocurrency?   The Libra cryptocurrency is a digital currency, built on a blockchain designed with security in mind. It will be stored in a digital wallet called ‘Calibra’, which will be available as an app, as well as within Facebook Messenger and whatsapp as an integrated payments system. This will enable users to send and receive money through messages.   Will the Libra cryptocurrency work offline as well?   Facebook aims for Libra to be used for offline payments as well including for public transport, buying groceries or paying bills. Facebook also plans to make its cryptocurrency available for exchange from traditional currency through physical ATM machines.   Who will be able to access the Libra cryptocurrency?   The Libra cryptocurrency will be accessible to anyone with an entry-level smartphone and data connectivity.   Who will manage the Libra cryptocurrency project ?   Facebook will not be governing the services of the Libra cryptocurrency. The social media giant has created an independent organisation called the Libra Association, which will build applications related to the new digital currency.   Where is Bitcoin legal and illegal?   Introduced in 2009, Bitcoin cryptocurrency is popularly used for transactions in many nations across the world including the United States, European Union, Canada and Australia. However, the cryptocurrency is considered illegal in many nations such as China, Russia, Vietnam and Bolivia. COPYRIGHT Q.518 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.2 With reference to the Teaser Loans, consider the following statements :   It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest rate, which increases after a few years   In India, Teaser loans are mostly given to the inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or exports unit   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   Teaser Loans ; It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest rate, which increases after a few years      COPYRIGHT Q.517 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.3 With reference to the Monetary Transmission , consider the following statements : It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the financial markets   Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary transmission   Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 2   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Monetary Transmission : – It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the financial markets   -Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary transmission   -Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission      MOCK Q.516 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.4 Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial Institutions Act,1993. With reference to the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) consider the following statements :   DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district & session judge   DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts   Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial Institutions Act,1993   -DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district & session judge   -DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts   -Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs      MOCK Q.515 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.5 Which among the following is not the function of the Asset Rehabilitation Agency that has been recommended by the Economic Survey 2017 ?   A) The agency will sell assets of loss making PSUs & will collect the payments due towards electricity boards   B) The agency take over the NPAs from the banks for a fixed cost , which is less than NPA amount   C) The agency will issue security receipts for fixed interest rate & will raise the money   D) NPA is transferred to the ARC along with any security pledged while taking loan   Ans. A   `   Asset reconstruction companies or Public Asset Rehabilitation Agencies acquire bad loans from any bank or financial institution for the purpose of realization of such loans

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ECONOMICS MCQ SET-27- FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA

Q.1 Which among the following constitutes the Non-tax revenues of the government ?   Interest payments   Union Excise duties   Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. D   EXPENDITURES OF THE GOVERNMENT : Interest payments Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets 3.Revenue Expenditure Capital Expenditure   NON TAX REVENUE : 1.Interest receipts Dividents & Profits External Grants Other non-tax revenues Receipts of union territories   COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.582 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.2 With reference to Economic curves, Consider the following :   Kuznets curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth   Laffer curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality   Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. A   3RD STATEMENT IS CORRECT   Kuznets curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality Laffer curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.573 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.3 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana, consider the following statements :   Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person   To be eligible ,the applicants should be covered under the National Pension Scheme   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana 2019 : Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person To be eligible ,the applicants should not be covered under the National Pension Scheme     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.572 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.4 With reference to the Premium rates of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , which among the following is/are correctly matched ?   Rabi 2% of Sum Insured   Kharif 1.5% of Sum Insured   Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Only 3   D) All are incorrect   Ans. C   Rabi 1.5% of Sum Insured Kharif 2% of Sum Insured Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.571 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.5 With reference to the Insurance, What is Floater Policy ?   A) A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be   B) A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood   C) A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras   D) All of the above   Ans. A   Floater Policy :A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be   Flood Insurance : A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood   Personal Articles Floater : A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras   COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.569 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.6 With reference to the PM Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana , consider the following statements :   Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2200   Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 10,000   Select the correct answer using the code given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. D   -Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2400 -Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 15000 -It is available to unorganized workers between 18 to 40 yrs of age – Subscriber will receive a minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per year after attaining age of 60 years     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.568 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.7 Which among the following are included in Voucher ?   Cash Payment   Cash Receipt   Credit Transactions   Select the correct answer using the code given below :   A) Only 3   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 2   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Following comes under Voucher : Cash Payment Cash Receipt Credit Transactions COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.564 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.8 Which among the following is/are correctly matched :   LABOUR LAWS                     YEAR   Payment of Wages Act 1948   Workmen’s compensation Act 1923   Trade Union Act 1926   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) 2 & 3   C) Only 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. B   Payment of Wages Act 1936 Workmen’s compensation Act 1923 Trade Union Act 1926     COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.563 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.9 With reference to the Minimum wages Act 1948,which among the following is/are the norm(s) for fixing the minimum wage :    Minimum food requirement of 2100 calories per average Indian adult   Cloth requirement of 72 yards per annum per family   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect

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IAS Introduction

1.Preliminary (Objective type):- 2 papers – General studies & CSAT (CSAT paper -2 is qualifying paper & you must get 66 marks only out of 200 & Merit will be  determined on the basis of marks obtained in General studies)    2. Mains (Essay type or conventional type): 9 papers (Indian language, English, Essay, G.S 1, G.S. 2, G.S. 3 , G.S.4, Optional paper 1 & Optional paper 2) [ Indian language & English are qualifying papers & rest of the papers will be counted in merit ]   3. Interview    IMPORTANT BOOKS FOR PRELIMS PREPARATION: • CSAT has been qualifying from 2016. So from then UPSC is framing questions from many sources • Now don’t focus much on Previous year papers • You may look previous year question papers of CAPF of 1 year back, as sometimes they may ask 1 question on Environment portion.And don’t expect more than 1 question. • Also look at 5 year previous year papers of Civil Services. In this only you will get just 1 question only.    • History :   Spectrum for Modern History, Krishna Reddy For Ancient & Medieval History & Nitin Singhania for Indian Culture After this you may look at NCERT Class 6th to 12th, NIOS, TAMIL NADU CLASS 11 & 12th. But the above books are more important. If you have read above books then 90% of History Prelims questions you may solve easily   • GEOGRAPHY :   Spectrum of Geography, Shankar environment,Oxford Atlas .Also search International Organisations & read About us section from their website.   • ECONOMICS :   India Year Book- for government Schemes, Economics section like Export of commodities- Import of commodities.Yojana & Kurukshetra from January 2019 to April 2019 for Prelims. Along with this you must look at S. Ramesh too.   • POLITICAL SCIENCE : Laxmikant Indian Polity   • CURRENT AFFAIRS :   You may read from The Hindu website.  The Hindu-Editorial columns, Life Style Section, Science & Technology(Sunday),International, Front page, National Column are very important. Mostly History questions & Environment questions are coming from these sections. You must prepare from January 2018 to May 2019.   • SCIENCE :   Spectrum’s Development in Sciencen & Technology or Ravi P. Agrahari’s Science & Technology Now you will ask I have not mentioned NCERT BOOKS of all the subjects.NCERT Books are imp. But Since 2016 UPSC is asking questions Mostly from Optional Sources. You must read NCERT BOOKS for basic understanding. As 1-2 questions you may get from NCERT BOOKS TOO.   IF YOU DON’T HAVE MUCH TIME IN READING ALL THE ABOVE BOOKS, then you must adopt following two strategies :   1. • YOU MUST LOOK AT IAS- PRELIMS -FRAMED QUESTIONS SECTION:-  ON DAILY BASIS WE ARE FRAMING QUESTIONS FROM RELIABLE SOURCES WHICH YOU MUST READ BEFORE PRELIMS EXAMINATION. SINCE PAST YEARS MANY QUESTIONS ARE REPEATING FROM OUR INITIATIVE   LINK : IAS-PRELIMS- FRAMED QUESTIONS   2.•THE HINDU CURRENT AFFAIRS COMPILATIONS:   Our team is making sincere efforts in making Compilations from The Hindu Newspaper thoroughly & We are Providing The Hindu newspaper Compilations on Monthly basis through Mail Assistance Programme.   Link: THE HINDU- COMPILATONS   HOW TO PREPARE FOR CSAT (PAPER-2) PRELIMS:   • For this you must look at previous year papers of CAPF & Civil services. • Some Quantitative aptitude questions you will get from the previous year papers while some questions you can easily solve by applying same techniques • In permutation & Combination questions they will never ask repeated questions •For mental ability questions you can take help from Pratiyogita darpan Extra Issues • Logical reasoning questions you can easily solve, if you have practiced from previous year papers • You can also practice questions from our website in CSAT APTITUDE SECTION.   HOW TO PREPARE FOR MAINS:    • First of all you must prepare Notes for Mains from today only upto date of prelims examination • After conduction of prelims , you won’t have time for making notes & that time will only for learning/revision • From “INSIGHT MIND MAPS” you can prepare notes of Issues. •       For General Studies portion, you must prepare from NCERT BOOKS & must practice ques. given at the end of each chapter. • After then, you must prepare previous year questions from 2013 MAINS TO till now. If possible, then get Pratiyogita Darpan solved IAS MAINS papers 2013 to 2016 as they have written solutions very nicely. • Apart from that prepare current affairs questions from THE HINDU, LIVE MINT, YOJANA ISSUES, KURUKSHETRA ISSUES in 200 words   HOW TO PREPARE FOR ESSAY:   • Current issues topics will be helpful for Essay preparation • Just extra thing you must prepare is : Introduction, Quotations, Conclusion. • While selecting Essay topics in exam, don’t think to write on toughest topic considering that very few will write on this topic so I must choose this topic. • Before Introduction, you must give any good quotation  • While ending essay , you must give good conclusion   HOW TO PREPARE FOR OPTIONAL:   • Just select that optional subject, which you have read upto graduation, because it will help you to prepare easily. • Never imitate others , in selecting optional • First complete the syllabus provided by UPSC for optional & after that look at previous year questions from 1978 to till now.   HOW TO PREPARE FOR INTERVIEW:   For this you must look at our Interview section & IAS TOPPER INTERVIEWS.    JOB PLACEMENT AFTER CLEARING UPSC CIVIL SERVICES :   It is civil services exam & ranking will be allotted to you on the basis of Percentage or marks secured in Mains & Interview. Prelims is of qualifying nature only.  If you become IAS then you can become DM,Cabinet Secretary & you can be appointed at the top posts of the government departments like Election Commissioner, CBSE Chairman & sometimes Governor too if you have good political contacts.  If you become IPS , then you could become SSp, commissioner, etc. etc. in Police department.  If you become IFS (Foreign Service), you could become Foreign Secretary, Ambassador, High Commissioner  If

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IAS Books

  BOOKS :   1) Geography : NCERT class 7th to 12th  Pearson CSAT manual Human & Economic Geography- Goh Chang Long Basic Physical Geography – K Siddhartha, Dr. S Mahapatra, S Mukherjee  WEBSITE :www.upsconlineacademy.net 2) Environment   ABC OF BIOLOGY of class 12th C.B.S.E.-(Unit-4 [with 7 chapters] is totally based on Ecology & Biodiversity) NCERT class 7th to 12th Ecology & Environment – K Siddhartha Frank School Atlas WEBSITE : www.upsconlineacademy.net 3) History :   •NCERT class 7th to 12th  Freedom Struggle – Bipin Chandra Modern India – Spectrum Spectrum’s Facets of Indian Culture  Centre For Cultural Resource & Training http://ccrtindia.gov.in/performingart.php WEBSITE : www.upsconlineacademy.net 4) Political Science:    NCERT FROM 7TH TO 12TH  Lucent General Knowledge (If you read all the objective questions of Political science from Lucent then Political Science mostly will be covered )  “Together with of Political science” from class 11th to 12th  Indian constitution – D.D Basu  Constitution of India – Subhash C Kashyap  Our Parliament – Subhash C Kashyap  WEBSITE : www.upsconlineacademy.net 5) Economics :    Indian Economy- Dutt & Sundaram  NCERT class 7th to 12th  Economic Times/ Business line Pratiyogita Darpan-Indian Economy Extra Issue WEBSITE : www.upsconlineacademy.net 6) Science & Technology :   TMH Manual /Spectrum  Annual reports of Min..of Science & Technology  Newsletters WEBSITE : www.upsconlineacademy.net 7) Chemistry:   S. Chand of 9th & 10th class NCERT of class 7th to 12th ABC of C.B.S.E.11th & 12th class   8) Physics :    S. Chand of 9th & 10th class NCERT of class 7th to 12th ABC of C.B.S.E. 11th & 12th class 9) Biology:   Modern’s ABC of Biology of class 12th C.B.S.E.(UNIT-1,3 & 5 is very important)  NCERT CLASS 7th to 12th Syllabus of PRELIMS:   Paper I (GENERAL STUDIES-I)-(200 marks) Duration : Two hours • Current events of national and international importance. • History of India and Indian National Movement. • Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic. • Geography of India and the World. • Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political. • System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. • Economic and Social Development-Sustainable. • Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social. • Sector Initiatives, etc. • General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.   Syllabus for Paper II(GENERAL STUDIES-II)-(200 marks) Duration: Two hours   • Interpersonal skills including communication skills; • Logical reasoning and analytical ability • Decision making and problem solving • General mental ability • Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. – Class X level)   MAINS SYLLABUS   Paper1   Essay – 250 Marks Can be written in the medium or language of the candidate’s choice   Paper – II   Language -300 Marks Candidate can take any Modern Indian language but this paper is of qualifying nature   Paper – III’   English -300 Marks This paper is of qualifying nature   Paper-IV   General Studies-I 250 Marks (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)   Paper-V   General Studies -II: 250 Marks (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)   Paper-VI   General Studies -III 250 Marks (Technology, Economic Development, Bio-diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)   Paper-VII   General Studies -IV 250 Marks (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) Marks carried by General Studies was 4X 250=1000   Paper-VIII   Optional Subject – Paper 1 -250 Marks   Paper-IX   Optional Subject – Paper II -250 Marks Candidate is allowed to take up literature as an optional subject “without the conditionality of having to do his/her graduation in that language’s literature. Sub Total (Written test) 2350 Marks Marks of English and Language will not be counted so total marks for Written exam will be 2350 MINUS 600 = 1750 Marks   Interview/Personality Test – 275 marks Total 2025 Marks   The written examination consists of the following papers: Paper A – English -300 marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted- Passing mandatory The aim of the paper is to test the candidates’ ability to read and understand serious discursive prose, and to express his ideas clearly and correctly, in English and Indian Language concerned. The pattern of questions would be broadly as follows:- (i) Comprehension of given passages (ii) Precis Writing (iii) Usage and Vocabulary (iv) Short Essay.   Paper B – A –   Modern Indian language 300 Marks – Qualifying nature – Marks not counted – Passing mandatory- (i) Comprehension of given passages. (ii) Precis Writing (iii) Usage and Vocabulary. (iv) Short Essay (v) Translation from English to the Indian language and vice-versa. Note 1: The Papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature only. The marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.   Note 2 :   The candidates will have to answer the English and Indian Languages papers in English and the respective Indian language (except where translation is involved).   Paper-I   Essay – 250 Marks – To be written in the medium or language of the candidate’s choice – Candidates will be required to write an essay on a specific topic. The choice of subjects will be given. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to write concisely. Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.   Paper-II   General Studies-I 250Marks (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society) Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times. Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, issues The Freedom Struggle – its various stages and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country. Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country. History of the world

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APFC 2016 GENERAL STUDIES- ** 60 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS IN GENERAL STUDIES SECTION

 Here is the list of questions that have been asked directly/indirectly in APFC 2016 from our Mock Series       APFC QUESTION 1.   Q. The Rangarajan committee on disinvestment of shares in Public sector enterprises suggested that 1.The percentage of equity to be divested should be more than 49% for industries explicitly reserved for the public sector and it should be either 74% or 100% for others. 2.Year-wise targets of disinvestment should be maintained. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A    MOCK-28 Q.19   Q.19 The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment of shares in public sector units did not suggest that A) The percentage of equity to be disinvested should be 49 percent in reserved industries and 75 percent in other cases B) A year wise targets of disinvestment should be maintained C) A scheme of preferential offer of shares to workers and employers in PSEs may be devised D) 10% of the proceeds of disinvestment may be set apart by the government for lending to PSEs on concessional terms Ans. B   APFC QUESTION 2.   Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: 1.It is applicable to all adults above the age group of 18 years. 2.The premium is deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto debit facility.’ 3.The life insurance worth is decided by the account holder and he has to pay the annual premium accordingly. 4.The life insurance amount is given to the family after the death of the subscriber. Which of the above statements the correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 and 4 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 2 and 3 only Ans. C     MOCK-48  Q.95   Q.95 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, which among the following statements are correct ? 1. It is a Life Insurance coverage plan 2. This scheme is available for all the age groups Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana is available to people between 18 and 50 years of age with bank accounts. It has an annual premium of ₹330 (US$5.00) excluding service tax, which is above 14% of the premium. The amount will be automatically debited from the account. In case of death due to any cause, the payment to the nominee will be ₹2 lakh (US$3,000). This scheme will be linked to the bank accounts opened under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana scheme. Most of these account had zero balance initially. The government aims to reduce the number of such zero balance accounts by using this and related schemes. This plan covers both natural and accidental death risk.   The maximum sum assured offered under this Govt Scheme is Rs 2 Lakhs.    APFC QUESTION 3.   Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana: 1.It is application for all bank account holders up to the age of 60 years. 2.It is life insurance cover. 3.It is an accident insurance cover. 4.The insurance covers death and permanent disability due to accident. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 and 4 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 4 only Ans. B     MOCK-53 Q.24   Q.24 Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is NOT correct? A) The yearly premium is Rs. 12 B) It is available to all savings bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 50 years C) It has accidental death and disability cover of Rs. 2,00,000 D) There is a provision of payment of Rs. 1,00,000 for partial permanent disability Ans. C   Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a government-backed accident insurance scheme in India. It was originally mentioned in the 2015 Budget speech by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in February 2015. It was formally launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 May in Kolkata. As of May 2015, only 20% of India’s population has any kind of insurance, this scheme aims to increase the number   APFC QUESTION 4.   Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal Pension Yojana: 1.Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 40 years. 2.Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he attains the age of 60 years. 3.After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse continues to receive the pension. 4.No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 3 and 4 only B) 1, 3 and 4 only C) 1, 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. C    MOCK-67 Q.1   Q.1 Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched three ambitious social security schemes, relating to the insurance and pension sector and intended at widening the process of financial inclusion.Which of the following is not among those? A) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (accident insurance) B) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana  (life insurance) C) Kisan Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (life insurance) D) Atal Pension Yojana” (Pension) Ans. C   Atal Pension Yojna (APY)   The scheme will be launched on June 1 2015 and focus is on the unorganised sector.  A pension provides people with a monthly income when they are no longer earning. A Subscriber receives pension based on accumulated contribution out of his current income.Under the  Atal Pension Yojna Scheme (APY), the subscribers ,under the age of 40, would receive the fixed monthly pension of  Rs. 1000 to Rs 5000 at the age of 60 years, depending on their contributions. To make the the pension scheme more attractive,  government would co-contribute 50 per cent of a subscriber’s contribution or Rs 1,000 per annum, whichever is lower to each eligible subscriber account for a period of of

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CSAT 2014-23 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR TEST PAPERS (Excluding Comprehensions)

21. Q. 50 (MOCK-4) Students were admitted to a Nursery Class. Some students can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both Hindi & English. If the no. of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi & how many can speak only English? 22. Q.20 (MOCK-5) Six books A,B,C,D,E & F are placed side by side. B,C & E have blue colour & the other books have red cover. Only D & F are new books & the rest are old. A,C & D are the law reports & others are gazetters. What book is a new law report with a red colour ? 23. Q.22 (MOCK-6) If Monday falls on the first of October. Which day will fall after three days of 20th in that month ? 24. Q.31 (MOCK-2) A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ? 25. Q.15 (MOCK-8) A man sold two houses for Rs. 800000 on one he gains 20 % while on the other he losses 20%. How much does he gain or loss in the whole transaction ? 26-29 Directions for Q.31 to Q.34(MOCK-1) Q.P,Q,R,S,T & U are the members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer & the father of T. U is the Grandfather of R & is a lawyer. S is the Grandmother of T & is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher , one housewife & two students in the family. 30. Q.49 (MOCK-7) When a person covers a distance between his house & office at 50km/hr he is late by 20 min. but when he travels at 60km/hr he reaches 10min. early. What is the distance between his house & office ? 31. Q.28 (MOCK-12) A person has to travel from A to B,& he knows PQ road is the joining road. How many ways are possible ?OTHER QUESTIONQ.74 (MOCK-7) Ranjit likes to take a different route to work each day. He always walks along side part of the park & only ever travels south or east.In the diagram lines represent streets in this area.How many different routes are there by which Ranjit can walk from home to the Work ? 32. Q.4 (mock-8) PASSAGE: A Training college has to conduct a refresher course for teachers of subjects: Education, Philosophy, Psychology,Sociology,Economics, Science & Engineering from 22nd July to 29th July: 1) Course should start with Psychology & there should be a gap of 2 days between Psychology & Sociology2) 23rd July being Sunday ,should be holiday3) Science should be on the previous day of Engineering4) Course should end with Education5) Philosophy should be immediately after the holiday6) There should be a gap of one day between Economics & Engineering 33. Q.175 (MOCK-12) Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many times will they toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start ? 34. Q.75 (MOCK-8) Two cars X & Y start from two places A & B which are 700 km apart at 9:00 am. Both the cars runs at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10:00 am while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When the two cars cross each other ? 35. Q.19 (MOCK-6) In a row of children Rohan is seventh from the left & Bali is fourth from the right. When Rohan & Bali exchange their position, Rohan will be fifteenth from the left. Bali’s position from the right will be ? 36. Q.66 (MOCK-4) Priti Scored more than Rahul. Yamuna Scored as much as Divya. Lokita Scored less than manju. Rahul Scored more than Yamuna. Manju Scored less than Divya. Who Scored the lowest ? 37-40 Directions for Q.27 to 30 (MOCK-2) Q. Examine the following information : Letters A,B,C,D,E,F & G not necessarily in the order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10. D is 3 less than A.B is the middle term.F is as much less than B as C is greater than D.G is greater than F 41. Q.49 (MOCK-4) Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G& H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second? 42. Q.63 (MOCK-8) There are 10 animals two each of lions, panthers, bisions,bears & deer in a zoo. Enclosures in zoo are named as X,Y,Z,P & Q & each of the enclosures is allotted to one of the following attendants- Jack,Mohan,Shalini,Suman & Rita. Two animals of different species are housed in each enclosure. A lion & deer cannot be together. Panther can not be with either deer or bison. Suman attends two animals from among bison,bear & lion. Mohan attends to lion & Panther.Jack does not attend to deer,lion or bison. X,Y & Z are allotted to Mohan, Jack & Rita. X & Q enclosures have one animal of same species. Z & P have pair of animals. animals attended by Shalini are43. Q.149 (MOCK-12) The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in area ? OTHER QUESTION Q.147 (MOCK-12) The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20% is 44. Q.23 (MOCK-10) 45. Q.24 (MOCK-10) Based on matrix questions 46. Q.34 (MOCK-10) Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than

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IAS GENERAL STUDIES 2014-23 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR TEST PAPERS

1. Q. 36 (MOCK-1)   Which among the following is/are the non-plan expenditure of the govt. of India ?1) Defence expenditure2) Subsidies3) Interest payments4) All expenditures linked with previous plan periodsCodes:A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D 2. Q.25(MOCK-18) Which of the following increases the amount of carbon dioxide in carbon cycle on earth ? 1) Respiration 2) Photosynthesis 3) Decay of organic matter 4) Volcanic action Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 3. Q.64 (MOCK-9) Consider the statements regarding Agni-IV:1) It is a surface to surface missile2) It was the third successful flight in a row of the missile3) It can deliver one tone nuclear warheads about 4000km away 4. Q.80 (MOCK-13) Which of the following is correct regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy ?1) To promote the International peace & security 2) To maintain just & honourable relation between the nations 3) To encourage the settlement of International disputes by arbitration Codes:A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 5. Q.67 (MOCK-14) Statements:1) Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges in the supreme Court. 2) Acting chief Justice of supreme court is appointed by the Prime Minister Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect 6. Q.141 (MOCK-19) Service tax is a : A) Indirect tax levied by the Central Government B) Direct tax levied by the Central Government C) Direct tax levied by the State Government D) Indirect tax levied by the State Government 7. Q.46 (MOCK-13) In context with the no-confidence motion, which among the following statements are correct ?1) It can be introduced in Lok Sabha only 2) A period of 6 months must lapse between the introduction of one No-Confidence motion & another 3) At least 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the house 4) There is no mention of no-confidence motion in the Constitution 8. Q.28 (MOCK-9) Which among the following are the objectives of the business correspondents ? 1) To sell pension products 2) To sell mutual fund products 3) To aid financial inclusion Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. DAfter going through question with explanation you may easily get the answer. 9. Q.46 (MOCK-17) In context with the SLR, consider the following statements: 1) SLR is maintained by the banks itself 2) SLR restricts banks leverage in pumping more money into the economy 3) To meet SLR Commercial banks can use cash only Or Q.98 (MOCK-3) Just read the explanation given in question: “What is SLR ? : SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio. This term is used by bankers and indicates the minimum percentage of deposits that the bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. Thus, we can say that it is ratio of cash and some other approved securities to liabilities (deposits) It regulates the credit growth in India.” 10. Q.67 (MOCK-4) Just look at the explanation given in question : “Lichens are the organism that is formed by the symbiotic association of a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium and occurs as crusty patches or bushy growths on tree trunks, bare ground, etc. Lichens are now classified as a phylum of fungi.” With this explanation you can easily get the answer. 11. Q.20 (MOCK-2) Q.Which of the following does not belong to Biosphere Reserves ? Just see in explanation of this question “Biosphere Reserves, as places that seek to reconcile conservation of biological and cultural diversity and economic and social development through partnerships between people and nature12. Q.70 (MOCK-13) Statements: 1) President may by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President resign his office 2) Executive power of the Union is vested in the President 13. Q.37 Which of the following constitutes the world bank ? 1) International Bank for reconstruction & development 2) International Monetary fund 3) international Finance Corporation 4) International Development Association Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4C 1,3,4 D) All are correctAns. B In original paper just see the options & you will find only IMF is present in mock paper’s options, so you may get the answer. 14. Q.2(MOCK-14) In context with the Sattriya which is the Indian dance tradition, consider the statements: 1) Sattriya Nritya is an accompaniment to the Ankia Naat (a form of Assamese one-act plays) 2) It is usually performed in the sattras 15. Q.3 (MOCK-14) In context with the venture Capital Fund, which among the following are correct ? 1) It earns money by owning equity in the companies 2) It is considered as a risk free 3) It is Private equity Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 In this question also after looking at explanation..you will get your answer 16. Q.72 (MOCK-14) Which of the following are the financial committees of the Parliament in India?1) Public Account Committee2) Estimates Committee3) Committee on public undertakingsCodes:A) Only 1B) 1,2,3C) 1 & 3D) 1 & 2 After looking at EXPLANATION you will get your answer.This question is very simple..after going through all the modules..you may get the answer. For example if someone asks you “ from which field Mr. Narendra Modi belongs to ?”  17. Q.133 (MOCK-19) Statements: 1) Balance of Payments represents better picture of a country’s economic transactions than the Balance of Trade 2) Balance of Payments takes into account exchange of both visible & invisible items whereas Balance of trade does not 18. Q.40 (MOCK-10) Statements: 1) National calendar based on the saka era with Chaitra as its first month 2) Dates of the national calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect 19. Q.20 (mock-1) Compare the differences between Respiration & Photosynthesis : 1) Photosynthesis is an Exothermic Process while Respiration

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CSAT 2015- 30 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS (Excluding Comprehensions)

 1.IAS QUESTION Convertibility of rupee implies (a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold     (b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces    (c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa (d) developing an international market for currencies in India   MOCK-3 Q.99Capital account Convertibility of the Indian rupee means: A) Indian rupee can be exchanged for the any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets. B) Indian rupee can be exchanged for the any major currency for the purpose of trading in goods & services. C) Indian rupee can be exchanged by authorized dealers for travel D) None of the above Ans. A   ANOTHER QUESTION MOCK-1 Q.41 Why Convertibility of Indian rupee is considered as a important goal of the economic liberalization ? A) Because it helps to attract more foreign capital inflow in India B) Because it will help to promote exports C) Because It will help to secure loans from the world financial markets at attractive terms D) Because it will stabilize its exchange value against major currencies of the World Ans. D    2.IAS QUESTION   India is a member of which among thefollowing? 1.Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation 2.Association of South-East Asian nation 3.East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below.      MOCK-12 Q.68 India is a member of: 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 2. Asian Development Bank (ADB) 3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) 4.World Trade Organization (WTO) Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 4 C) 2,3 and 4 D) 1,2,3 and 4 Ans. B    3.IAS QUESTION   Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following? 1. Gravitational Force of the Sun 2. Gravitational Force of the Moon 3. Gravitational Force of the Earth Select the correct answer using the code given below    MOCK-1 Q.54 Which among the following plays an important role in formation of tides ? 1) Rotation of earth 2) Gravitation of Sun 3) Gravitation of Earth 4) Revolution of earth Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C    4.IAS QUESTION  Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’? (a) A community of organisms interacting with one another. (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms. (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area     MOCK-12 Q.55 An ecosystem comprises: A) Only trees, shrubs and herbs in an area B) Only animals in an area C) All plants and animals in an area D) All living and non-living things in an area Ans. D    5.IAS QUESTION Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? (a) Odia (b) Konkani (c) Bhojpuri (d) Assamese     MOCK-11 Q.60 Which of the following languages has been accorded as the status of classical language ? 1) Sanskrit 2) Tamil 3) Malyalam 4) Marathi 5) Telugu Codes: A) 1,2,3,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) Only 1,2& 5 Ans. A Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odiahave been recognised as classical languages.    6.IAS QUESTION With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement concrete. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.     MOCK-1 Q.24 Which of the following can help in reducing the carbon footprint ? 1.Using fly-ash based cement in building construction 2. Using LED-based electric lamps instead of incandescent lamps Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both I and 2 D) Neither I nor 2 Ans. C The total amount of greenhouse gases produced to directly and indirectly support human activities, usually expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide (CO2).   7. IAS QUESTION We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of :   TEST SERIES Mock-10 Q.50 We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of : A) Identification of earth-like planets in the universe B) Use of wireless short distance communication C) Minimum distance required between Earth & any artificial satellite revolving around it D) None of the above Ans. A   8. IAS QUESTION In which of the following States are the famous ‘Living Root Bridges’ found   Direct Question Mock-10 Q.52 In which of the following states famous ‘ Living Root Bridges “ found ? A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) Kerala D) Meghalaya Ans. D    9. IAS QUESTION   In which one of the following National Parks has a climate, that varies from tropical to sub-tropical temperate and arctic ?    Direct Question MOCK-14   Q.23 In which one of the following National Parks has a climate, that varies from tropical to sub-tropical temperate and arctic ? A) Kangchendzonga National Park B) Nandadevi National Park C) Neora National Park D) Namdhapa National Park Ans.A    10.IAS QUESTION In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?   Direct Question MOCK-9 Q.13 In which of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species ? A) Tropical rain forest B) Tropical deciduous forest C) Tropical thorn & scrub forest D) Temperate forest with grasslands Ans. B    11.IAS QUESTION  With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/an; correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India. 3.

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