POLITICAL SCIENCE MCQS

Q. 1 Consider the following statements : 1) Every state has a high court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction 2) Every High Court shall have a chief justice & other judges who shall be appointed by the President 3) Each High Court shall be a court of record Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3] C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2  In context with the Impeachment process of Judge of higher judiciary, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Judge may be removed through motion in Parliament with 2/3rd support in each house 2) The impeachment motion can be initiated in any house of the Parliament 3) An impeachment has to be moved by either 100 lok sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3 With reference to the Jurisdiction of the High Court which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Power of supritendence over all the other state courts 2) Power to transfer the cases from the other subordinate courts in the state to itself 3) Power to appoint the officers & servants of the high court Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q. 4 With reference to the Governor which among the following statements are correct ? 1) There shall be a governor of each state & a same person can be made governor of more than one states 2) Executive authority of the state is vested in the Governor 3) He/she may not be a member of either house of the Parliament or the member of the legislature 4) President can grant the pardon but Governor does not enjoy this power Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the Governor ? 1) To summon & prorogue either house of the state legislature & dissolve the state assembly 2) He/she appoints 1/6th of the state legislative council 3) Nominates 1 member in the legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian community 4) Power to make laws through the ordinances in the state  Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.6 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor 2) No-confidence motion against any minister leads to the resignation of the entire council 3) There shall be council of ministers & advise the governor in exercise his functions, except those required to be done by the Governor Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Determination of the legislative council is determined by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council can be abolished by the 2/3rd majority of the Parliament 3) Resolution  create & abolish is to be assented by the President Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statmnets are correct ? 1) 1/3rd members of the legislative council are elected by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council elects the deputy chairman 3) Legislative council is a permanent body but 1/3rd retire every two years Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 With reference to the state legislature which of the following statements are correct ? 1) State legislature can make laws on the subjects which are in the state as well as in the concurrent list 2) State legislature exercise the complete control of the finances 3) No taxes can be levied without the approval of the state legislature Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.11 Statements: 1) Council of ministers in the centre shall be responsible to the Parliament 2) Union ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India 3) Prime minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B  

Q.1 Statements : 1) Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court 2) Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Advocate general & Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of President   Q.2 Which among the following bills are considered as the Constitutional Amendment Bill : 1) Changing of the name of the state 2) Creating a new state 3) Changing the boundary of the state 4) Abolition of legislative council 5) Administration of Tribal areas Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 1,2,3,4,5 C) 2,3,4,5 D) All are not included in the Constitution Amendment bill Ans. D   Q.3 On which of the following Parliamentary Committee has been set up ? 1) Government assurance 2) Public undertaking 3) Estimates 4) Welfare minorities Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C   Q.4 Planning commision’s expert panel has recommended surcharge on the taxable income for the purpose of : A) Providing free health care B) Expansion of education C) Development of roads D) Providing relief to educated unemployed Ans. B   Q.5 Statements: 1) Union Finance commission do not have any role in considering measures for giving financial assistance to the local bodies 2) Inspite of the 73rd & 74th amendment, local government continues to be State subject in the seventh schedule of the constitution Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B   Q.6 Which of the following expenditure is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India ? 1) Salary & allowances of Chief Justice of India 2) Salary & allowances of CAG 3) Salary & allowances of Prime minister of India 4) Salary & allowances of UPSC Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C   Q.7 Statements: 1) Prime minister is appointed by the President 2) Prime minister is the head of the Council of ministers 3) Executive power of the Union vests in the Prime Minister 4) Prime Minister at the time of his appointment need not be a member of either house of the parliament Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. B   Q.8 Article 371 of the constitution makes special provisions of which of the following states ? A) Nagaland B) Andhra Pradesh C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Maharashtra & Gujarat Ans. A   Q.9 Statements: 1) Zero base budget has been introduced in India 2) Zero base budget technique involves a critical review of every shame before a budgetary provision Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Zero-based budgeting is an approach to planning and decision-making that reverses the working process of traditional budgeting. In traditional incremental budgeting (Historic Budgeting), departmental managers justify only variances versus past years, based on the assumption that the “baseline” is automatically approved. By contrast, in zero-based budgeting, every line item of the budget must be approved, rather than only changes. During the review process, no reference is made to the previous level of expenditure. Zero-based budgeting requires the budget request be re-evaluated thoroughly, starting from the zero-base. This process is independent of whether the total budget or specific line items are increasing or decreasing. The term is sometimes used in personal finance to describe “zero-sum budgeting”, the practice of budgeting every unit of income received, and then adjusting some part of the budget downward for every other part that needs to be adjusted upward. 7 Zero based budgeting also refers to the identification of a task or tasks and then funding resources to complete the task independent of current resourcing.   Q.10 President of India may declare National emergency if there is threat of : 1) External aggression 2) Internal disturbances 3) Armed rebellion 4) Communal clashes Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 3 & 4 Ans. A   Q.11 In context with the National Biodiversity Authority, which among the following are correct ? 1) It is statutory body 2) It advises to both the Central as well as State Government regarding  identifying the areas of biodiversity importance Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment and Forests,Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the National Biological Diversity Act, 2002, after India signed Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in 1992. Headquartered in Chennai, India, it acts as a facilitating, regulating and advisory body to the Government of India “on issues ofconservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources   Q.12 In context with the Parivarik Mahila Lok Adalat, which among the following are correct ? 1) It is established under Legal Service Authority Act 2) It is For redressal and speedy disposal of Marital disputes and other family disputes   Codes:   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C  

Q.1 Regarding No-Confidence Motion- A) It is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers B) No grounds have to be set out for the motion C) not less than 100 members have to support it for the Speaker to grant leave for its introduction D) It is always brought against the Prime Minister Ans. A   Q.2 Which of the following provisions of Indian Constitution has/have been sourced from the constitution of Canada? 1. Federal System 2. Residuary powers 3. Concurrent List 4. Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court. Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,4 Ans. C   Q.3 Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian Citizenship? 1. Birth 2. Descent 3. Naturalisation 4. Incorporation of territory Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,3,4 Ans. B   Q.4 Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct? 1. UPSC is a constitutional body. 2. It serves as an advisory body 3. It is called upon to advise the Govt. in regard to representation of the Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes in the Civil service. 4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman & members of tribunals & Commissions. Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2 D) 1,3,4 Ans. C   Q.5 Which of the following statements are correct about the  National Advisory Council( NAC)? 1. The National Advisory Council( NAC) is a statutory body. 2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. 3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of the civil society 4. It provides policy & legislative inputs to the Govt. of India. Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 only Ans. C   Q.6 Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ? 1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats. 2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of  Panchayats at the intermediate & district levels 3. Representation of Members of Parliament & State Legislature on Panchayati Raj Institutions. 4. Reservation of seats for backward classes. Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) 4 only Ans. C   Q.7 Consider the following facts about the disallowance of State legislation. 1. The President has no direct power to disallow a bill passed by the state legislative assembly. 2. But there is a provision for disallowance of the bill, passed by the state legislative assembly,as are reserved by the State Governor for assent of the President. Codes: A) Both 1 & 2 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A   Q.8 Consider the statements: 1. Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect ta a matter in the state list. 2. Resolutions approving the Proclaimation of Emergeny are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Codes: A) Both 1 & 2 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B   Q.9 Which among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power s vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? A) Federalism B) Representative Legislature C) Universal Adult Franchise D) Parliamentary Democracy Ans. B   Q.10 Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity? 1. Common all India Service. 2. Single integrated judiciary. Codes: A) Both 1 & 2 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A   Q.11 Which of the following  is responsible for the preparation & presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament? A) Department of Revenue B) Department of Economic Affairs C) Department of Financial Services D) Department of Expenditure Ans. B  

Q.1 Which among the following is INCORRECT statement about constituent assembly ? A) It worked with the help of a large number of committees, the most important among them being the drafting committee B) Minorities comunities were adequately represented in the assembly C) It was elected on the basis of universal adult franchise D) Its electoral processw as based on 6th Schedule of the act of 1935 which allowed for a restricted franchise based on tax, property and education qualificaiton. Ans. C   Q.2 The consultative committee of members of parliament for railway zones is constituted by which of the following ? A) President of India B) Minstry of railways C) Ministry of parliament affairs D) Ministry of transport Ans. C   Q.3 Sir creek dispute is in between which of the following two country ? A) India-Pakistan B) Afganistan-Pakistan C) China-India D) India-Bangladesh Ans. A   Q.4 The protection of Civil right act extends to ? A) The whole of India B) The whole of India except the scheduled area C) The whole of India except the scheduled area D) The whole of India except the union territories of Goa, Daman and diu Ans. C   Q.5 Who among the following were the members of the drafting committee of the Constitution? 1) N. Gopalaswami 2) Jawaharlal Nehru 3) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 4) Sardar Patel Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2 & 4 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C   Q.6 A political party is recognized as a regional party , if A)  It gets 4% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election. B)  It gets 6% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election. C)  It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election. D) None of the above Ans. B   Q.7 Constitution (Amendment) bill can be initiated in- I. Lok Sabha II. Rajya Sabha III. Sate Legislature Which of the following is correct in this regard? A) Only I B) Only III C) I or II is correct D) All are correct Ans. C   Q.8 Which statement is correct? I. State emergency is also known a constitutional emergency. II. State emergency/ President rule can be proclaimed by the President on the failure to comply with or to give effect to directions given by the Union. Codes: A)  I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.9 Which among the following is/ are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the constitution of India? 1) Equal pay for equal work 2) Uniform civil code 3) Small family norms 4) Education through mother tongue at primary level Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,4 Ans. B   Q.10 Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification? A) President B) Speaker C) Election Commissioner D) None of the above Ans. B  

Q.1 Statements: 1) Union territories are administered by the President through an administrator 2) President may appoint a governor of any adjoining state as administrator of Union territory 3) Power to determine the structure of administration in UT is vested in the Parliament Codes: 4) Parliament can constitute HC for UT Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Kolkata High Court   –   A & N islands 2) Punjab & Haryana High Court  – Chandigarh 3) Kerala High Court               – Lakshadweep 4) Chennai High Court            –  Pondicherry Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.3 Which of the following are included in the Union executive ? 1) President 2) Vice President 3) Council of Ministers 4) Attorney General Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) Only  1 & 2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.4 Which of the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans. C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers   Q.5 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the President ? 1) President have the right to know what his government is doing 2) It shall be the duty of the PM to communicate to the President all the decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the Union & Proposals 3) Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks 4) President can hold the assent to the bill Codes : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 1 & 2 Ans. D Legislative powers : President can hold the assent to the bill Ordinance Powers : Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks   Q. 6 In context with the Council of ministers, which among the statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers is real executive 2) Minister shall hold the office during the pleasure of President 3) COM shall be collectively responsible to the house of people Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.7 With reference to the Attorney General of India , which among the following statements are correct ? 1) AG represents the government 2) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President 3) Acts as an advocate in the Union government 4) Eligible to take part in the parliament proceedings 5) He/she is not a member of the cabinet but can speak in both the houses 6) He/she does not have the right to vote Codes: A) 1,3,4,5,6 B) 2,4,5,6 C) 2,3,4,5,6 D) 1,2,3,4,5,6 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the Rajya Sabha, which among the following are correct ? 1) Members are elected by the state legislative assembly 2) Seats are allocated on the basis of the population 3) All the Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.9 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Imposition , abolition, remission, alteration & regulation of tax comes under the money bill 2) Imposition of fines or penalties by any local authority for the local purposes also comes under the money bill Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Botha are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.10 With reference to the money bill, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Money bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 2) After passing into Lok Sabha, bill shall be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations 3) Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha 4) Rajya Sabha can not hold the money bill for more than 14 days Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D      

Q.1 Statements: 1) Union territories are administered by the President through an administrator 2) President may appoint a governor of any adjoining state as administrator of Union territory 3) Power to determine the structure of administration in UT is vested in the Parliament Codes: 4) Parliament can constitute HC for UT Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Kolkata High Court   –   A & N islands 2) Punjab & Haryana High Court  – Chandigarh 3) Kerala High Court               – Lakshadweep 4) Chennai High Court            –  Pondicherry Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.3 Which of the following are included in the Union executive ? 1) President 2) Vice President 3) Council of Ministers 4) Attorney General Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) Only  1 & 2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.4 Which of the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans. C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers   Q.5 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the President ? 1) President have the right to know what his government is doing 2) It shall be the duty of the PM to communicate to the President all the decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the Union & Proposals 3) Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks 4) President can hold the assent to the bill Codes : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 1 & 2 Ans. D Legislative powers : President can hold the assent to the bill Ordinance Powers : Ordinance must be laid before both the houses within 6 weeks   Q. 6 In context with the Council of ministers, which among the statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers is real executive 2) Minister shall hold the office during the pleasure of President 3) COM shall be collectively responsible to the house of people Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.7 With reference to the Attorney General of India , which among the following statements are correct ? 1) AG represents the government 2) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President 3) Acts as an advocate in the Union government 4) Eligible to take part in the parliament proceedings 5) He/she is not a member of the cabinet but can speak in both the houses 6) He/she does not have the right to vote Codes: A) 1,3,4,5,6 B) 2,4,5,6 C) 2,3,4,5,6 D) 1,2,3,4,5,6 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the Rajya Sabha, which among the following are correct ? 1) Members are elected by the state legislative assembly 2) Seats are allocated on the basis of the population 3) All the Union territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C   Q.9 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Imposition , abolition, remission, alteration & regulation of tax comes under the money bill 2) Imposition of fines or penalties by any local authority for the local purposes also comes under the money bill Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Botha are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.10 With reference to the money bill, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Money bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 2) After passing into Lok Sabha, bill shall be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations 3) Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha 4) Rajya Sabha can not hold the money bill for more than 14 days Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D      

Q. 1 Consider the following statements : 1) Every state has a high court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction 2) Every High Court shall have a chief justice & other judges who shall be appointed by the President 3) Each High Court shall be a court of record Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3] C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2  In context with the Impeachment process of Judge of higher judiciary, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Judge may be removed through motion in Parliament with 2/3rd support in each house 2) The impeachment motion can be initiated in any house of the Parliament 3) An impeachment has to be moved by either 100 lok sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3 With reference to the Jurisdiction of the High Court which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Power of supritendence over all the other state courts 2) Power to transfer the cases from the other subordinate courts in the state to itself 3) Power to appoint the officers & servants of the high court Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.4 4With reference to the Governor which among the following statements are correct ? 1) There shall be a governor of each state & a same person can be made governor of more than one states 2) Executive authority of the state is vested in the Governor 3) He/she may not be a member of either house of the Parliament or the member of the legislature 4) President can grant the pardon but Governor does not enjoy this power Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the Governor ? 1) To summon & prorogue either house of the state legislature & dissolve the state assembly 2) He/she appoints 1/6th of the state legislative council 3) Nominates 1 member in the legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian community 4) Power to make laws through the ordinances in the state  Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.6 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor 2) No-confidence motion against any minister leads to the resignation of the entire council 3) There shall be council of ministers & advise the governor in exercise his functions, except those required to be done by the Governor Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Determination of the legislative council is determined by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council can be abolished by the 2/3rd majority of the Parliament 3) Resolution  create & abolish is to be assented by the President Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statmnets are correct ? 1) 1/3rd members of the legislative council are elected by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council elects the deputy chairman 3) Legislative council is a permanent body but 1/3rd retire every two years Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 With reference to the state legislature which of the following statements are correct ? 1) State legislature can make laws on the subjects which are in the state as well as in the concurrent list 2) State legislature exercise the complete control of the finances 3) No taxes can be levied without the approval of the state legislature Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D    

Q.1 Consider the statements 1.Tribal areas comes under PESA(panchayat Extension to Scheduled Area ) Act 1996 2.In tribal areas joint forest management committees will be under the control of gram sabhas & panchayats. Select the correct answer A)1 only B)2 only C)Both are correct D)None of the above Ans. C   Q.2 Who is the president of the Council of Scientific & Industrial research ? A) President of India B) Union minister of Science & Technology C) Prime Minister of India D) Vice President of India Ans. B   Q.3 Statements: 1) Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislature with respect to a matter in the state list 2) Resolutions approving the proclamation of  emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.4 Statements: 1) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men & women 2) The constitution of India does not define backward classes Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B   Q.5 What does 104th Constitution Amendment bill relates to ? A) Providing quota to the religious minorities in the services under the Government B) Providing Quota to socially & educationally backward classes in private educational institutions C) Abolition of legislative council in certain states D) Introduction of dual citizenship for the persons of Indian origin living outside India Ans. B   Q.6 Which among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provisions under the article of constitution ? A) Election Commission of India B) University Grants commission C) National Human Rights commission D) Central Vigilance Commission Ans. A   Q.7 Statements: 1) A person who has held office as a permanent judge of a High court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court 2) A person is not qualified for appointment as a judge of a High Court in India unless he has atleast5 years held a judicial office in the territory of India Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.8 Consider the statements in respect of the Financial emergency under the Article 360 of the Constitution of India : 1) A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of 2 months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of parliament 2) If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation it is competent for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries & allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the supreme court & high court Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.9 Statements: 1) Chairman of committee on public accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the lok sabha 2) Committee on Public Accounts comprises members of Lok Sabha, members of Rajya Sabha & few eminent persons of industry & trade Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A   Q.10 Statements: 1) Ministries of the Government of India are created by the Prime minister on the advice of the cabinet secretary 2) Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the President of India in the advice of the Prime Minister Codes: A) Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B    

Q.1 Consider the following statements : 1) Every state has a high court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction 2) Every High Court shall have a chief justice & other judges who shall be appointed by the President 3) Each High Court shall be a court of record Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3] C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.2 In context with the Impeachment process of Judge of higher judiciary, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Judge may be removed through motion in Parliament with 2/3rd support in each house 2) The impeachment motion can be initiated in any house of the Parliament 3) An impeachment has to be moved by either 100 lok sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.3  With reference to the Jurisdiction of the High Court which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Power of supritendence over all the other state courts 2) Power to transfer the cases from the other subordinate courts in the state to itself 3) Power to appoint the officers & servants of the high court Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.4 With reference to the Governor which among the following statements are correct ? 1) There shall be a governor of each state & a same person can be made governor of more than one states 2) Executive authority of the state is vested in the Governor 3) He/she may not be a member of either house of the Parliament or the member of the legislature 4) President can grant the pardon but Governor does not enjoy this power Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.5 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the Governor ? 1) To summon & prorogue either house of the state legislature & dissolve the state assembly 2) He/she appoints 1/6th of the state legislative council 3) Nominates 1 member in the legislative assembly from Anglo-Indian community 4) Power to make laws through the ordinances in the state  Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.6 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D   Q.7 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Council of Ministers holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor 2) No-confidence motion against any minister leads to the resignation of the entire council 3) There shall be council of ministers & advise the governor in exercise his functions, except those required to be done by the Governor Codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.8 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Determination of the legislative council is determined by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council can be abolished by the 2/3rd majority of the Parliament 3) Resolution t create & abolish is to be assented by the President Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.9 With reference to the legislative council which among the following statmnets are correct ? 1) 1/3rd members of the legislative council are elected by the legislative assembly of the state 2) Legislative council elects the deputy chairman 3) Legislative council is a permanent body but 1/3rd retire every two years Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.10 With reference to the state legislature which of the following statements are correct ? 1) State legislature can make laws on the subjects which are in the state as well as in the concurrent list 2) State legislature exercise the complete control of the finances 3) No taxes can be levied without the approval of the state legislature Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D   Q.11 Statements: 1) Union territories are administered by the President through an administrator 2) President may appoint a governor of any adjoining state as administrator of Union territory 3) Power to determine the structure of administration in UT is vested in the Parliament Codes: 4) Parliament can constitute HC for UT Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.12 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Kolkata High Court   –   A & N islands 2) Punjab & Haryana High Court  – Chandigarh 3) Kerala High Court               – Lakshadweep 4) Chennai High Court            –  Pondicherry Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.13 Which of the following are included in the Union executive ? 1) President 2) Vice President 3) Council of Ministers 4) Attorney General Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) Only  1 & 2 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D   Q.14 Which of the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans.

Q.1 Which of the following expenses require sanction of Parliament ? 1) Defence expenditure 2) Debt charges of the government 3) Maintenance expenditure of embassies 4) Salary & allowances of President & CAG Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 4 C) 1 &2 D) 3 & 4 Ans. A   Q.2 Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of  India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). If he seeks such an advice. III. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizen. Codes: A) I & III B) II & III C) I & II D) All are correct Ans. C   Q.3 Which of the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary& Presidential form of Govt.? A) Power of Judicial review B) Method of election of President/Head of State C) Legislative supremacy in law making D) Relation between the legislature & the executive Ans. B Parliamentary Government: The executive is not separated from the legislature. The members of council of ministers are the members of legislature. The executive is accountable to the legislature. The executive loses power when it loses the confidence of the legislature. In the Parliamentary government, one person is head of state while another persons is head of government. In the Parliamentary systems, the Prime Minister is most powerful. In the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister can appoint only the members of parliament as minister. In the Parliamentary system, the tenure of the executive is not fixed. The Council of Ministers is dismissed if it loses the confidence of the legislature before its tenure is over. The Parliamentary government is more democratic, because the executive • (council of ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament). There is less of separation of powers in the Parliamentary government. During war and other emergencies, the Parliamentary government is relatively less effective and successful. Presidential Government: The executive is completely separated I from the legislature. The members of executive are not the members of the legislature. The executive is not accountable to the II legislature. The legislature cannot remove the executive from power] through no-confidence motion. In the Presidential government, i same person is head of state as well as head of government. In the Presidential system, the President is most powerful. In the Presidential system, the President appoint persons from outside the legislature as minister. In the Presidential system, executive has a fixed tenure normally, the executive head (President) stays in power for the whole term. It is not easy to remove him from power through impeachment. The Presidential government is democratic, because the executive (President) is not accountable to the legislature.   Q.4 Examine statements carefully & select the answers to these items using the code given below: Statement I: Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding officer of the House. Statement II : When the Presiding officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. A) Both the statements are individually true & statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Ans. B The primary object of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late. The matter proposed to be raised should be of such a character that something very grave which affects the whole country and its security has happened and the House is required to pay its attention immediately by interrupting the normal business of the House. The adjournment motion is thus an extraordinary procedure which, if admitted, leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance. The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law. A matter which falls within the jurisdiction of a State Government is inadmissible, but a matter concerning the constitutional developments in a State or atrocities on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections of the society which bring the Union Government into picture may be considered for admission on merits. The refusal to give his consent is in the absolute discretion of the Chair and he is not bound to give any reasons therefor. Before the commencement of a session notices of adjournment motion can at the earliest be given on and after the date notified for the purpose in Bulletin Part-II. This is normally three working days before the commencement of the session. Notices received prior to that date are not considered valid and are returned to the members. Telegraphic notice is not valid in view of provisions of Rule 332. During the session period, notice of an adjournment motion should be given by 10.00 hours on the day on which the motion is proposed to be made. Notices received after 10.00 hours are treated as notices given for the next sitting. As a convention, adjournment motions are not taken up on the day of the President’s Address. Notices received for that day are treated as notices for the next sitting.   Q.5 Which of the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime