ECONOMICS MCQS

MOCK Q.432- FRAMED FROM SHANKAR IAS <br>Q.1 Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to the Climate Investment Funds ? 1. The operation of the Financial Mechanism is partly entrusted to the Global Environment Facility (GEF) 2. These funds were approved by MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency) in 2008 to address climate change Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) were designed by developed and developing countries and are implemented with the multilateral development banks (MDBs) to bridge the financing and learning gap between now and the next international climate change agreement. CIFs are two distinct funds: the Clean Technology Fund and the Strategic Climate Fund. The CIFs are additional to existing Official Development Assistance (ODA) and aim to enable countries to continue on their development path and achieve the Millennium Development Goals. These funds will be operated in close coordination with existing bilateral and multilateral efforts. The funds were approved by the World Bank Board of Directors in July 2008 and on September 26, 2008 received pledges of US$6.5 billion. The Climate Investment Funds include the: •   Clean Technology Fund •   Strategic Climate Fund •   Forest Investment Program •   Pilot Program for Climate Resilience •   Scaling Up Renewable Energy Program, and •   Private Sector MOCK Q.426- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY Q.2 With reference to the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), consider the following statements : 1. TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods 2.TFA requires developed countries should reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies 3. It contains provisions for technical & financial assistance in trade facilitation Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) : TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods TFA contains provisions for technical assistance & capacity building in trade facilitation Provision of Fourth Ministerial Meeting in Doha, Qatar (2001) : TFA requires developed countries should reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies MOCK Q.425- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY Q.3 Which one of the following does not comes under the category of Back Office Outsourcing ? A) Call centre services B) Banking C) Media & Entertainment D) Travel & Hospitality Ans. A Call centre services : Front Office Outsourcing Back Office Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Services An organization’s back office management can significantly impact its success. Large volumes of data accrue on a daily basis, from various transactional processes such as order fulfilment, applications processing, transaction processing, billing, and collections that require effective back office solutions. Invensis is a reputed leader in empowering numerous global businesses and organizations through high quality back office BPO services that promote enhanced business efficiency and improved bottom-line. back office outsourcing services extend across industries such as: •   Finance •   Banking •   Insurance •   Healthcare •   Manufacturing & Chemical •   Travel & Hospitality •   Media & Entertainment •   Utilities •   Logistics and Customs Brokerage •   Automotive •   Education •   Mortgage •   Government MOCK Q.420- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q.4 On account of which of the following reasons Chabahar port is relevant for India ? 1. Chabahar port will increase dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan 2. In October 2017, India began shipment of Rice, Wheat & Pulses to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar 3. Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3, Ans. A -Chabahar port will reduce dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan – In October 2017, India began shipment of Wheat to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar – Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan MOCK Q.419- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q.5 With reference to the Official Development Assistance, consider the following statements : 1. ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time in 1959 2.Japan is the only developed nation  that signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with India Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time is 1969 India is the largest recipient of Japanese Official Development Assistance (ODA) MOCK Q.407- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU” Q.6 Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme ? A) It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups B) It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills C) It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund science projects D) It is the scheme implemented by Institution’s Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing opportunities for a life-long learning Ans. C SHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills Functioning of the Scheme: The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) which provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every industry. The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) initially in the Banking Finance Insurance Services (BFSI), Retail,

MOCK Q.508 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.1 Global Liveability Index report is published by :   A) Global Infrastructure Hub   B) Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)   C) Joint Research Centre of European Commission   D) Cornell University   Ans. B   EIU releases Global Liveability Index MOCK Q.503 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.2 Which among the following products are offered by the Indian Post Payment Banks ?   Direct Benefit Transfers   Saving & Current Accounts   Utility payments   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   The payments bank, where the Indian government holds 100 per cent equity,   The IPPBs will offer a range of products such as savings and current accounts, money transfer, direct benefit transfers, bill and utility payments, and enterprise and merchant payments.   On August 29, 2018, the Union Cabinet had approved 80 per cent increase in spending for IPPB from Rs 800 crore to Rs 1435 crore.   MOCK Q.499 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.3 With reference to the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan OR SUMAN Scheme, consider the following statements :   It aims to provide institutional delivery at every private & public health care facilities   Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn care visits   The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) Only 2   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. C   Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan   The Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan initiative or SUMAN scheme aims to provide dignified and quality health care at no cost to every woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.   Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn care visits.   The scheme will enable zero expense access to the identification and management of complications during and after the pregnancy. The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from home to the health facility and drop back after discharge (minimum 48 hrs).   The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities.   The scheme will ensure that there is zero-tolerance for denial of services to such patients. MOCK Q.485 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.4 Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund ?   It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)   It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB)   Select the correct answer using the codes given below   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. C   About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund The fund was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2015 to fund new and rejuvenate stressed projects so that stalled investment cycle is revived in the country.   It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).   It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB).   On the basis of the above early warning signals, the branch maintaining the account should consider forwarding the stressed accounts with aggregate loan limits above 10 lakh rupees to the Committee for Stressed MSMEs within five working days for a suitable corrective action plan (CAP).   As regards accounts with aggregate loan limits up to 10 lakh rupees identified as SMA-2, the account should be mandatorily examined for CAP by the branch itself under the authority of the branch manager /designated official as decided by the bank.   The option under CAP may include Rectification, Restructuring and Recovery among others.   MOCK Q.478 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.5 Which among the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Angel Fund ?   It has been launched very recently under which the first generation entrepreneurs can get a maximum loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa   The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 9 months during which no interest rates will be charged   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. D   It has been launched in 2013 by Assam Chief Minister, under which the first generation entrepreneurs can get a maximum loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa   The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 10 months during which no interest rates will be charged MOCK Q.477 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.6 With reference to the Equity Index, consider the following statements :   It was launched in collaboration with the world bank which will help raise funds for products seeking to mitigate climate change   It is the first equity Index linked with the Green Bond   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct

COPYRIGHT Q.528 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.1 With reference to the Libra cryptocurrency, consider the following statements :   The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international currencies   Demand or scarcity are the driving factors of the Libra currency   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   What is the difference between Bitcoin and Libra cryptocurrency?   Though popular, Bitcoin cryptocurrency has been known to be volatile, especially in recent years. Unlike Bitcoin, Libra will be backed by a reserve of real assets, meaning that the value of the currency will be linked to something with intrinsic value rather than driven by demand or scarcity.   The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international currencies. The reserve will be administered by a non-profit associated headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.   What is Libra Cryptocurrency?   The Libra cryptocurrency is a digital currency, built on a blockchain designed with security in mind. It will be stored in a digital wallet called ‘Calibra’, which will be available as an app, as well as within Facebook Messenger and whatsapp as an integrated payments system. This will enable users to send and receive money through messages.   Will the Libra cryptocurrency work offline as well?   Facebook aims for Libra to be used for offline payments as well including for public transport, buying groceries or paying bills. Facebook also plans to make its cryptocurrency available for exchange from traditional currency through physical ATM machines.   Who will be able to access the Libra cryptocurrency?   The Libra cryptocurrency will be accessible to anyone with an entry-level smartphone and data connectivity.   Who will manage the Libra cryptocurrency project ?   Facebook will not be governing the services of the Libra cryptocurrency. The social media giant has created an independent organisation called the Libra Association, which will build applications related to the new digital currency.   Where is Bitcoin legal and illegal?   Introduced in 2009, Bitcoin cryptocurrency is popularly used for transactions in many nations across the world including the United States, European Union, Canada and Australia. However, the cryptocurrency is considered illegal in many nations such as China, Russia, Vietnam and Bolivia. COPYRIGHT Q.518 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.2 With reference to the Teaser Loans, consider the following statements :   It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest rate, which increases after a few years   In India, Teaser loans are mostly given to the inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or exports unit   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   Teaser Loans ; It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest rate, which increases after a few years      COPYRIGHT Q.517 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.3 With reference to the Monetary Transmission , consider the following statements : It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the financial markets   Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary transmission   Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 2   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Monetary Transmission : – It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the financial markets   -Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary transmission   -Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission      MOCK Q.516 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.4 Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial Institutions Act,1993. With reference to the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) consider the following statements :   DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district & session judge   DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts   Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 2   B) 1 & 3   C) 2 & 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial Institutions Act,1993   -DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district & session judge   -DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts   -Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs      MOCK Q.515 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU   Q.5 Which among the following is not the function of the Asset Rehabilitation Agency that has been recommended by the Economic Survey 2017 ?   A) The agency will sell assets of loss making PSUs & will collect the payments due towards electricity boards   B) The agency take over the NPAs from the banks for a fixed cost , which is less than NPA amount   C) The agency will issue security receipts for fixed interest rate & will raise the money   D) NPA is transferred to the ARC along with any security pledged while taking loan   Ans. A   `   Asset reconstruction companies or Public Asset Rehabilitation Agencies acquire bad loans from any bank or financial institution for the purpose of realization of such loans

Q.1 Which among the following constitutes the Non-tax revenues of the government ?   Interest payments   Union Excise duties   Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. D   EXPENDITURES OF THE GOVERNMENT : Interest payments Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets 3.Revenue Expenditure Capital Expenditure   NON TAX REVENUE : 1.Interest receipts Dividents & Profits External Grants Other non-tax revenues Receipts of union territories   COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.582 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.2 With reference to Economic curves, Consider the following :   Kuznets curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth   Laffer curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality   Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality   How many of the above are correct   A) Only one   B) Only two   C) All three   D) None   Ans. A   3RD STATEMENT IS CORRECT   Kuznets curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality Laffer curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.573 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.3 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana, consider the following statements :   Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person   To be eligible ,the applicants should be covered under the National Pension Scheme   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. A   Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana 2019 : Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person To be eligible ,the applicants should not be covered under the National Pension Scheme     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.572 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.4 With reference to the Premium rates of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , which among the following is/are correctly matched ?   Rabi 2% of Sum Insured   Kharif 1.5% of Sum Insured   Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Only 3   D) All are incorrect   Ans. C   Rabi 1.5% of Sum Insured Kharif 2% of Sum Insured Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.571 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.5 With reference to the Insurance, What is Floater Policy ?   A) A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be   B) A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood   C) A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras   D) All of the above   Ans. A   Floater Policy :A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be   Flood Insurance : A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood   Personal Articles Floater : A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras   COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.569 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.6 With reference to the PM Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana , consider the following statements :   Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2200   Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 10,000   Select the correct answer using the code given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect   Ans. D   -Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2400 -Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 15000 -It is available to unorganized workers between 18 to 40 yrs of age – Subscriber will receive a minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per year after attaining age of 60 years     COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.568 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.7 Which among the following are included in Voucher ?   Cash Payment   Cash Receipt   Credit Transactions   Select the correct answer using the code given below :   A) Only 3   B) 2 & 3   C) 1 & 2   D) 1,2,3   Ans. D   Following comes under Voucher : Cash Payment Cash Receipt Credit Transactions COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.564 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.8 Which among the following is/are correctly matched :   LABOUR LAWS                     YEAR   Payment of Wages Act 1948   Workmen’s compensation Act 1923   Trade Union Act 1926   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) 1 & 3   B) 2 & 3   C) Only 3   D) 1,2,3   Ans. B   Payment of Wages Act 1936 Workmen’s compensation Act 1923 Trade Union Act 1926     COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.563 FOR EPFO/APFC  FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA   Q.9 With reference to the Minimum wages Act 1948,which among the following is/are the norm(s) for fixing the minimum wage :    Minimum food requirement of 2100 calories per average Indian adult   Cloth requirement of 72 yards per annum per family   Select the correct answer using the codes given below :   A) Only 1   B) Only 2   C) Both are correct   D) Both are incorrect

Q.1 Which among the following are the Gulf Cooperation Countries ? 1. Bahrain 2. Kuwait 3. Qatar 4. Saudi Arabia 5. Oman Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans.D   Q.2 New methods of trapping black money devised by the Government are : 1. NHB funding 2. Foreign Exchange Reserves 3. SBI mutual funds 4. NRI investment rules relaxation Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D   Q.3 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ? 1. Kazakhstan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 1,3,5 C) 1,4,5 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans.D The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors. Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally, it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May 6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees.  The Protocol awaits ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect. Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific.   Q.4 Which among the following are the members of the  P5+1 countries ? 1. China 2. UK 3. France Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D USA , Russia are also the members of P5+1 Countries P5+1 countries include the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (UNSC)   Q.5 Which of the following are the classical languages of the world ? 1. Chinese 2. Tamil 3. Hebrew 4. Greek 5. Latin Which among the above are correct ? A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans.D Classical languages of India : Sanskrit, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam   Q.6 With reference to the Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank, consider the following statements : 1. Initial subscribed capital is 50 billion US dollar 2. Allocation of capital share will be on capital basis 3. Each member country has equal voting share Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Authorised capital will be of will be of 100 billion US dollars It has been established to infrastructure projects including energy, transportation, urban construction and logistics as well as education and healthcare in Asia-Pacific region. For each member country it is based on the size of their economy and not on authorised capital share to the Bank. China is the highest contributor. Total there are 57 members, of which  37  are regional and 20 non-regional Prospective Founding Members (PFM).   Q.7 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements 1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota  that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy. 2. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India Which among the above statements is/are correct A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power  

Q.1 Consider the statements relating to the Social Audit: 1) It contains Financial & non-financial resources that could be used by the public agencies.  2) For awarenes generation under MNREGA  every state govt is required to undertake the exercise to publicise the key provisions of the schemes. 3) It facilitate verification of the records with  stakeholders/beneficiaries. 4) The Village resource persons are deployed for social audit. Options: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Investment in microenterprise is more than 25lakh. 2) Investment in small enterprise is 5 crore. 3) Investment in medium enterprise is more than 10 crore. Options: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) All are correct D) All are incorrect Ans. D   Q.3 In context with the Janani Shishu Suraksha Yojna consider the following statements: 1) It guarantees free entitlements to pregnant women & new born till 30days after birth. 2) It has a facility of transport from home to health instituions. 3) many women in India have high body mass index. 4) Institutionally deliveries has been increased after the launch of the JSY. 5) It has not been implemented in all the states. Options: A) 1 ,2,3,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,4 Ans. D   Q.4  In context with the Indira Awaas yojana conider the following statements: 1) It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Min. of the Rural Development. 2) Financial assistance is provided to the BPL households. 3) Gram Panchayat select the benificiaries from the BPL households. 4) Engagement of the Contractor & Specific Design has been stipulated for an IAY house. Which above are correct? A)  1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) all are correct Ans. A   Q.5 The purpose of Eco-Tourism is: 1) To facilitate self employment opportunities for the poor. 2) To generate income sources to the higher communities. 3) To encourage supply of Goods & services. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 1 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. A Ecotourism focuses on socially responsible travel, personal growth, and environmental sustainability. Ecotourism typically involves travel to destinations where flora, fauna, and cultural heritage are the primary attractions. an integral part of ecotourism is the promotion of recycling, energy efficiency, water conservation, and creation of economic opportunities for local communities   Q.6 Consider the statements about Aadhar: 1) It is based on the 11 parameters of demographic & Biometric data. 2) Aimed at improving delivery of public services i.e. MGNREGA 3) The UID programme helps in success of project with designed services & techology. Options: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. B The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is an agency of the Government of India responsible for implementing the AADHAAR scheme, a unique identification project. It was established in February 2009, and will own and operate the Unique Identification Number database. The authority aims to provide a unique id number to all Indians, but not smart cards.[2] The authority will maintain a database of residents containing biometric and other data.[3] The agency is headed by a chairman, who holds a cabinet rank. The UIDAI is part of the Planning Commission of India.[1][4] Nandan Nilekani, former co-chairman of Infosys Technologies, was appointed as the first Chairman of the authority in June 2009.[5] Ram Sewak Sharma, an IAS Officer of Jharkhand Government is the Director General and Mission Director of the Authority Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique number which the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) will issue for all residents in India (on a voluntary basis). The number will be stored in a centralized database and linked to the basic demographics and biometric information – photograph, ten fingerprints and iris – of each individual. It is easily verifiable in an online, cost-effective way. It is unique and robust enough to eliminate the large number of duplicate and fake identities in government and private databases. UIDAI launched AADHAAR program in the tribal village, Tembhli, in Shahada,[9][10] Nandurbar, Maharashtra on 29 September 2010.   Q.7 Consider the following statements: 1) There is low current Account Deficit. 2) Low CAD is driven by the rise in gold & oil imports. 3) To reduce the fiscal deficit the govt can raise prices of Diesel & LPG. Which above are correct? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D CAD Occurs when a country’s total imports of goods, services and transfers is greater than the country’s total export of goods, services and transfers. This situation makes a country a net debtor to the rest of the world. A substantial current account deficit is not necessarily a bad thing for certain countries. Developing counties may run a current account deficit in the short term to increase local productivity and exports in the future. What Causes a Current Account Deficit? Countries with current account deficits are usually big spenders, but are considered very credit worthy. These countries’ businesses can’t borrow from their own residents, because they haven’t saved enough in local banks. They would prefer to spend than save their income. Businesses in a country like this can’t expand unless they borrow from foreigners. That’s where the credit-worthiness comes into the picture.   Q.8 Open market operation is apart of: A) Income policy B) Labour policy C) credit policy D) Fiscal policy Ans. C An open market operation is an activity by a central bank to buy or sell government bonds on the open market. A central bank uses them as the primary means of implementing monetary policy. The usual aim of open market operations is to control the short term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly control the total money supply. This involves meeting the demand of base

Q.1 Jan Dhan Yojna is a recently launched Banking Scheme for financial inclusion under which each account holder will get, among others 1. An overdraft facility of Rs.5,000 2. An insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000 3. A credit card Codes: A) 1 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 1 & 2 only D) 1,2 & 3 Ans. C   Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely Banking Savings & Deposit Accounts,Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner. This financial inclusion campaign was launched by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014 .He had announced this scheme on his first Independence Day speech on 15 August 2014. Under the scheme: Account holders will be provided zero-balance bank account with RuPay debit card, in addition to accidental insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh(to be given by ‘HDFC Ergo’). Those who open accounts by January 26, 2015 over and above the 1 lakh ₹ accident claim will also be given life insurance cover of ₹ 30,000(to be given by LIC). After Six months of opening of the bank account, holders can avail 5,000 ₹overdraft from the bank. With the introduction of new technology introduced by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a person can transfer funds, check balance through a normal phone which was earlier limited only to smart phones so far.   Mobile banking for the poor would be available through National Unified USSD Platform (NUUP) for which all banks and mobile companies have come together     Q.2 Integrated low Cost Sanitation Scheme aims at conversion of dry latrines into A) Pour flush latrines B) Cistern flush latrines C) Vacuum flush latrines D) Pit latrines Ans. A   Q.3 Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable Socio-Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the head Environment, is not correct ? A) Treat all urban waste water by 2011-2012 to clear river waters B) Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-2017 C) Attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-2012 D) Increase forest and tree cover by 15% points Ans. D The forest and tree cover is targeted to be increased by 5%.   Q.4 Indo-China joint mechanism on the Brahmaputra river was aimed at : 1. Sharing river water 2. Sharing river water data 3. Sharing information on transboundary projects 4. Addressing concerns on dams in upper Brahmaputra Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C   Q.5 What is Hawala ? A) Illegal transations of foreign exchanges B) Illegal hoarding of money C) Illegal trading of shares D) Tax evasion Ans. B   Q.6 Which of the following statements about AESAN is not correct ? A) India is a founding member of ASEAN B) Its objectives were primarily to accelerate economical & social progress & cultural development C) It is committed primarily to promote regional peace & stability D) It encourage negotiation over conflict in the region Ans. A As of 2010, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has 10 member states, one candidate member state, and one observer state. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 with five members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.     Q.7 Consider the following statements with reference to the proposed National Judicial Appointments Commission: 1. The NJAC would replace the collegium in judicial appointments. 2. The NJAC will have no judicial members. 3. It recommends persons for appointment as Chief Justice of India, Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices of High Courts and other Judges of High Courts. 4. It recommends transfer of Chief Justices and other Judges of High Courts from one High Court to any other High Court. Which of the above statements are true? A) 1 & 3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.8 Which of the following countries are members of the Fragile Five? 1. Turkey 2. Brazil 3. India 4. Japan 5. South Africa 6. Indonesia Codes: A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,2,3,5,6 C) 1,2,3,4,6 D) All are correct Ans. B The long-running boom in emerging markets came to be identified, if not propped up, by wide acceptance of the term BRICs, shorthand for the fast-growing countries Brazil, Russia, India and China. Recent turmoil in these and similar markets has produced a rival expression: the Fragile Five. The new name, as coined by a little-known research analyst at Morgan Stanley last summer, identifies Turkey, Brazil, India, South Africa and Indonesia as economies that have become too dependent on skittish foreign investment to finance their growth ambitions. The term has caught on in large degree because it highlights the strains that occur when countries place too much emphasis on stoking fast rates of economic growth. The new catchphrase also raises pressing questions about not just the BRICs but about emerging markets in general. The Morgan Stanley report came out in August, when there were reports that the Federal Reserve would soon reduce its bond-buying program. The term that report coined became a quick and easy way for investors to give voice to fears of a broader emerging markets rout, propelled by runs on the Turkish lira, Brazilian real and South African rand. These fears were realized this week when Turkey, seen by most investors as the most fragile of the Fragile Five, raised interest rates 4.25 percentage points on Tuesday. The sharper-than-expected increase by the country’s central bank — which previously took a fairly passive approach to defending its currency — was intended to persuade foreign investors, as well as corporate and household savers, to hold on to their lira instead of exchanging them for dollars. As with other members of the Fragile Five, Turkey relies heavily on fickle short-term investment from foreigners to finance gaping current account deficits — the result of which has been a currency that many investors say is overvalued. Investment analysts love to come up with

Q.1 Which of the following statements is/are true under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) ? 1. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a state shall not exceed 250 nautical miles. 2. All states enjoy freedom of navigation and over flight through the EEZ of other state. 3. Only the coastal state can build artificial islands and structures in its EEZ. Which of the above statements are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 3 only Ans. D   Some of the key features of the Convention are the following:     * Coastal States exercise sovereignty over their territorial sea which they have the right to establish its breadth up to a limit not to exceed 12 nautical miles; foreign vessels are allowed “innocent passage” through those waters; * Ships and aircraft of all countries are allowed “transit passage” through straits used for international navigation; States bordering the straits can regulate navigational and other aspects of passage; * Archipelagic States, made up of a group or groups of closely related islands and interconnecting waters, have sovereignty over a sea area enclosed by straight lines drawn between the outermost points of the islands; the waters between the islands are declared archipelagic waters where States may establish sea lanes and air routes in which all other States enjoy the right of archipelagic passage through such designated sea lanes; * Coastal States have sovereign rights in a 200-nautical mile exclusive economic zone (EEZ) with respect to natural resources and certain economic activities, and exercise jurisdiction over marine science research and environmental protection; * All other States have freedom of navigation and overflight in the EEZ, as well as freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines; * Land-locked and geographically disadvantaged States have the right to participate on an equitable basis in exploitation of an appropriate part of the surplus of the living resources of the EEZ’s of coastal States of the same region or sub-region; highly migratory species of fish and marine mammals are accorded special protection; * Coastal States have sovereign rights over the continental shelf (the national area of the seabed) for exploring and exploiting it; the shelf can extend at least 200 nautical miles from the shore, and more under specified circumstances; * Coastal States share with the international community part of the revenue derived from exploiting resources from any part of their shelf beyond 200 miles; * The Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf shall make recommendations to States on the shelf’s outer boundaries when it extends beyond 200 miles; * All States enjoy the traditional freedoms of navigation, overflight, scientific research and fishing on the high seas; they are obliged to adopt, or cooperate with other States in adopting, measures to manage and conserve living resources; * The limits of the territorial sea, the exclusive economic zone and continental shelf of islands are determined in accordance with rules applicable to land territory, but rocks which could not sustain human habitation or economic life of their own would have no economic zone or continental shelf; * States bordering enclosed or semi-enclosed seas are expected to cooperate in managing living resources, environmental and research policies and activities; * Land-locked States have the right of access to and from the sea and enjoy freedom of transit through the territory of transit States; * States are bound to prevent and control marine pollution and are liable for damage caused by violation of their international obligations to combat such pollution; * All marine scientific research in the EEZ and on the continental shelf is subject to the consent of the coastal State, but in most cases they are obliged to grant consent to other States when the research is to be conducted for peaceful purposes and fulfils specified criteria; * States are bound to promote the development and transfer of marine technology “on fair and reasonable terms and conditions”, with proper regard for all legitimate interests; * States Parties are obliged to settle by peaceful means their disputes concerning the interpretation or application of the Convention; * Disputes can be submitted to the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea established under the Convention, to the International Court of Justice, or to arbitration. Conciliation is also available and, in certain circumstances, submission to it would be compulsory. The Tribunal has exclusive jurisdiction over deep seabed mining disputes.     Q.2 Which ministry is responsible for administration of Insecticide Act 1968? A) Ministry of Law and Justice B) Ministry of Agriculture C) Ministry of Health D) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises Ans.  B   Q.3 Which one among the following is not a major reason for the deceleration of growth in Indian economy since 2011-2012? A) High inflation following the monetary and fiscal stimulus during the global recession B) Decline in investment in infrastructure due to high interest rate C) Slowing down in population growth rate leading to erosion of demographic dividend D) Slowing global economy leading to fall in exports Ans. B   Q.4 The decision of government of India to allow oil companies to increase the price of the diesel in small increments at regular intervals will have the impact of A) Widening fiscal deficit B) Increase in demand for diesel cars C) Lowering the price of consumer goods D) Reducing the amount of subsidies in the Union Budget Ans. D   Q.5 Which one among the following is not true regarding the nature of savings in India? A) savings comes from three sources, viz., households, private corporate sectors and the public sector B) In recent years public sector is the largest source of savings in India C) Savings rate has been more than 30% of GDP during the last 10 years D) The share of private corporate sector in savings in India is on the increase during the last 10 years Ans. B In India, the biggest source of savings is

Q.1  Consider the following statements regarding balance of payments of India during 2011-12 are correct? 1. Trade balance, which is defined as exports minus imports of goods and services was negative 2. Net invisibles , which includes remittances from Indians settled abroad, was positive 3. Net Foreign Direct Investment was negative Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 only D) 1 and 3 only Ans. D Highlights of BoP during January-March (Q4) of 2012-13 •  India’s current account deficit (CAD) moderated sharply to 3.6 per cent of GDP in Q4 of 2012-13 from a historically high level of 6.7 per cent of GDP in Q3 of 2012-13 as trade deficit narrowed. •  Merchandise exports (BoP basis) increased by 5.9 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as compared with 2.6 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12. •  Merchandise imports recorded a marginal decline of 1.0 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as against an increase of 22.6 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12. Essentially non-oil non-gold component of imports showed a decline, reflecting slowdown in domestic economic activity. •  As a result, trade deficit narrowed to US$ 45.6 billion in Q4 of 2012-13 from US$ 51.6 billion in Q4 of 2011-12. •  Net invisibles, however, recorded a decline of 7.7 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as compared to a growth of 27.5 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12 on account of decline in net services, transfers and income receipts. •  Net capital inflows under financial account moderated in Q4 of 2012-13 largely due to slowdown in net portfolio investment and net repayment of loans by banks and corporate. However, net capital inflows were more than adequate to finance CAD, resulting in accretion of US$ 2.7 billion to the foreign exchange reserves.   Q.2 The decision of government of India to allow oil companies to increase the price of the diesel in small increments at regular intervals will have the impact of A) Widening fiscal deficit B) Increase in demand for diesel cars C) Lowering the price of consumer goods D) Reducing the amount of subsidies in the Union Budget Ans. D   Q.3 Which one among the following is not true regarding the nature of savings in India? A) savings comes from three sources, viz., households, private corporate sectors and the public sector B) In recent years public sector is the largest source of savings in India C) Savings rate has been more than 30% of GDP during the last 10 years D) The share of private corporate sector in savings in India is on the increase during the last 10 years Ans. B In India, the biggest source of savings is the household sector, followed by the private corporate sector and the public sector.   Q.4 Which one among the following is not a major reason for the deceleration of growth in Indian economy since 2011-2012? A) High inflation following the monetary and fiscal stimulus during the global recession B) Decline in investment in infrastructure due to high interest rate C) Slowing down in population growth rate leading to erosion of demographic dividend D) Slowing global economy leading to fall in exports Ans. B   Q.5 The BASIC group of industries mainly coordinates their policies and stances related to A) Maritime security B) Climate change C) UN reform D) Financial stability Ans. D   Q.6 Annual GDP growth of sub-5 percent for four successive years was witnessed in the A) Mid 1980s B) Mid 1990s C) Mid 2000s D) Mid 1980s and mid 1990s Ans. A    

Q.1 India is represented at the IMF by an executive director . He also represents : 1. Bangladesh 2. Sri lanka 3. Bhutan 4. Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) Only 1 Ans. A   Q.2 Which among the following is not the idea of global security emerged in 1990 in response to the global nature of threats ? A) Global warming B) International terrorism C) Internal disturbances D) Health epidemics like AIDS & bird flu Ans. C   Q.3 Land reclamation is the subject dealt by : A) Ministry of rural development B) Ministry of agriculture C) Ministry of panchayati raj D) Ministry of earth sciences Ans. B   Q.4 Which of the following is superimposed international boundary ? A) USA –Mexico boundary B) India-Pakistan boundary along Jammu & Kashmir C) 38th North parallel boundary between North & south Korea D) Chile-Argentina boundary along Andes Ans. B   Q.5 Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Bhopal Gas Leak disaster & special laws related thereto ? A) Ministry of petroleum & natural gas B) Ministry of home affairs C) Ministry of science & technology D) Ministry of Chemical & fertilizers Ans. D   Q.6 The Indo-Us nuclear deal signed in the year 2008 enables American investment in what aspect of Indian industry ? A) Nuclear defence technology B) Nuclear safety & disaster management C) Nuclear energy D) Nuclear medicine Ans. A