Raashid Shah

Q.1 Which among the following are the Gulf Cooperation Countries ? 1. Bahrain 2. Kuwait 3. Qatar 4. Saudi Arabia 5. Oman Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans.D   Q.2 New methods of trapping black money devised by the Government are : 1. NHB funding 2. Foreign Exchange Reserves 3. SBI mutual funds 4. NRI investment rules relaxation Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D   Q.3 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ? 1. Kazakhstan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 1,3,5 C) 1,4,5 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans.D The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors. Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally, it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May 6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees.  The Protocol awaits ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect. Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific.   Q.4 Which among the following are the members of the  P5+1 countries ? 1. China 2. UK 3. France Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D USA , Russia are also the members of P5+1 Countries P5+1 countries include the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (UNSC)   Q.5 Which of the following are the classical languages of the world ? 1. Chinese 2. Tamil 3. Hebrew 4. Greek 5. Latin Which among the above are correct ? A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans.D Classical languages of India : Sanskrit, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam   Q.6 With reference to the Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank, consider the following statements : 1. Initial subscribed capital is 50 billion US dollar 2. Allocation of capital share will be on capital basis 3. Each member country has equal voting share Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Authorised capital will be of will be of 100 billion US dollars It has been established to infrastructure projects including energy, transportation, urban construction and logistics as well as education and healthcare in Asia-Pacific region. For each member country it is based on the size of their economy and not on authorised capital share to the Bank. China is the highest contributor. Total there are 57 members, of which  37  are regional and 20 non-regional Prospective Founding Members (PFM).   Q.7 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements 1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota  that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy. 2. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India Which among the above statements is/are correct A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power  

Q.1 Consider the statements relating to the Social Audit: 1) It contains Financial & non-financial resources that could be used by the public agencies.  2) For awarenes generation under MNREGA  every state govt is required to undertake the exercise to publicise the key provisions of the schemes. 3) It facilitate verification of the records with  stakeholders/beneficiaries. 4) The Village resource persons are deployed for social audit. Options: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.2 Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) Investment in microenterprise is more than 25lakh. 2) Investment in small enterprise is 5 crore. 3) Investment in medium enterprise is more than 10 crore. Options: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) All are correct D) All are incorrect Ans. D   Q.3 In context with the Janani Shishu Suraksha Yojna consider the following statements: 1) It guarantees free entitlements to pregnant women & new born till 30days after birth. 2) It has a facility of transport from home to health instituions. 3) many women in India have high body mass index. 4) Institutionally deliveries has been increased after the launch of the JSY. 5) It has not been implemented in all the states. Options: A) 1 ,2,3,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,4 Ans. D   Q.4  In context with the Indira Awaas yojana conider the following statements: 1) It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Min. of the Rural Development. 2) Financial assistance is provided to the BPL households. 3) Gram Panchayat select the benificiaries from the BPL households. 4) Engagement of the Contractor & Specific Design has been stipulated for an IAY house. Which above are correct? A)  1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) all are correct Ans. A   Q.5 The purpose of Eco-Tourism is: 1) To facilitate self employment opportunities for the poor. 2) To generate income sources to the higher communities. 3) To encourage supply of Goods & services. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 1 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. A Ecotourism focuses on socially responsible travel, personal growth, and environmental sustainability. Ecotourism typically involves travel to destinations where flora, fauna, and cultural heritage are the primary attractions. an integral part of ecotourism is the promotion of recycling, energy efficiency, water conservation, and creation of economic opportunities for local communities   Q.6 Consider the statements about Aadhar: 1) It is based on the 11 parameters of demographic & Biometric data. 2) Aimed at improving delivery of public services i.e. MGNREGA 3) The UID programme helps in success of project with designed services & techology. Options: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. B The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is an agency of the Government of India responsible for implementing the AADHAAR scheme, a unique identification project. It was established in February 2009, and will own and operate the Unique Identification Number database. The authority aims to provide a unique id number to all Indians, but not smart cards.[2] The authority will maintain a database of residents containing biometric and other data.[3] The agency is headed by a chairman, who holds a cabinet rank. The UIDAI is part of the Planning Commission of India.[1][4] Nandan Nilekani, former co-chairman of Infosys Technologies, was appointed as the first Chairman of the authority in June 2009.[5] Ram Sewak Sharma, an IAS Officer of Jharkhand Government is the Director General and Mission Director of the Authority Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique number which the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) will issue for all residents in India (on a voluntary basis). The number will be stored in a centralized database and linked to the basic demographics and biometric information – photograph, ten fingerprints and iris – of each individual. It is easily verifiable in an online, cost-effective way. It is unique and robust enough to eliminate the large number of duplicate and fake identities in government and private databases. UIDAI launched AADHAAR program in the tribal village, Tembhli, in Shahada,[9][10] Nandurbar, Maharashtra on 29 September 2010.   Q.7 Consider the following statements: 1) There is low current Account Deficit. 2) Low CAD is driven by the rise in gold & oil imports. 3) To reduce the fiscal deficit the govt can raise prices of Diesel & LPG. Which above are correct? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D CAD Occurs when a country’s total imports of goods, services and transfers is greater than the country’s total export of goods, services and transfers. This situation makes a country a net debtor to the rest of the world. A substantial current account deficit is not necessarily a bad thing for certain countries. Developing counties may run a current account deficit in the short term to increase local productivity and exports in the future. What Causes a Current Account Deficit? Countries with current account deficits are usually big spenders, but are considered very credit worthy. These countries’ businesses can’t borrow from their own residents, because they haven’t saved enough in local banks. They would prefer to spend than save their income. Businesses in a country like this can’t expand unless they borrow from foreigners. That’s where the credit-worthiness comes into the picture.   Q.8 Open market operation is apart of: A) Income policy B) Labour policy C) credit policy D) Fiscal policy Ans. C An open market operation is an activity by a central bank to buy or sell government bonds on the open market. A central bank uses them as the primary means of implementing monetary policy. The usual aim of open market operations is to control the short term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly control the total money supply. This involves meeting the demand of base

Q.1 Jan Dhan Yojna is a recently launched Banking Scheme for financial inclusion under which each account holder will get, among others 1. An overdraft facility of Rs.5,000 2. An insurance cover of Rs. 1,00,000 3. A credit card Codes: A) 1 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 1 & 2 only D) 1,2 & 3 Ans. C   Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely Banking Savings & Deposit Accounts,Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner. This financial inclusion campaign was launched by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014 .He had announced this scheme on his first Independence Day speech on 15 August 2014. Under the scheme: Account holders will be provided zero-balance bank account with RuPay debit card, in addition to accidental insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh(to be given by ‘HDFC Ergo’). Those who open accounts by January 26, 2015 over and above the 1 lakh ₹ accident claim will also be given life insurance cover of ₹ 30,000(to be given by LIC). After Six months of opening of the bank account, holders can avail 5,000 ₹overdraft from the bank. With the introduction of new technology introduced by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a person can transfer funds, check balance through a normal phone which was earlier limited only to smart phones so far.   Mobile banking for the poor would be available through National Unified USSD Platform (NUUP) for which all banks and mobile companies have come together     Q.2 Integrated low Cost Sanitation Scheme aims at conversion of dry latrines into A) Pour flush latrines B) Cistern flush latrines C) Vacuum flush latrines D) Pit latrines Ans. A   Q.3 Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable Socio-Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the head Environment, is not correct ? A) Treat all urban waste water by 2011-2012 to clear river waters B) Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-2017 C) Attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-2012 D) Increase forest and tree cover by 15% points Ans. D The forest and tree cover is targeted to be increased by 5%.   Q.4 Indo-China joint mechanism on the Brahmaputra river was aimed at : 1. Sharing river water 2. Sharing river water data 3. Sharing information on transboundary projects 4. Addressing concerns on dams in upper Brahmaputra Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C   Q.5 What is Hawala ? A) Illegal transations of foreign exchanges B) Illegal hoarding of money C) Illegal trading of shares D) Tax evasion Ans. B   Q.6 Which of the following statements about AESAN is not correct ? A) India is a founding member of ASEAN B) Its objectives were primarily to accelerate economical & social progress & cultural development C) It is committed primarily to promote regional peace & stability D) It encourage negotiation over conflict in the region Ans. A As of 2010, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has 10 member states, one candidate member state, and one observer state. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 with five members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.     Q.7 Consider the following statements with reference to the proposed National Judicial Appointments Commission: 1. The NJAC would replace the collegium in judicial appointments. 2. The NJAC will have no judicial members. 3. It recommends persons for appointment as Chief Justice of India, Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices of High Courts and other Judges of High Courts. 4. It recommends transfer of Chief Justices and other Judges of High Courts from one High Court to any other High Court. Which of the above statements are true? A) 1 & 3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D   Q.8 Which of the following countries are members of the Fragile Five? 1. Turkey 2. Brazil 3. India 4. Japan 5. South Africa 6. Indonesia Codes: A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 1,2,3,5,6 C) 1,2,3,4,6 D) All are correct Ans. B The long-running boom in emerging markets came to be identified, if not propped up, by wide acceptance of the term BRICs, shorthand for the fast-growing countries Brazil, Russia, India and China. Recent turmoil in these and similar markets has produced a rival expression: the Fragile Five. The new name, as coined by a little-known research analyst at Morgan Stanley last summer, identifies Turkey, Brazil, India, South Africa and Indonesia as economies that have become too dependent on skittish foreign investment to finance their growth ambitions. The term has caught on in large degree because it highlights the strains that occur when countries place too much emphasis on stoking fast rates of economic growth. The new catchphrase also raises pressing questions about not just the BRICs but about emerging markets in general. The Morgan Stanley report came out in August, when there were reports that the Federal Reserve would soon reduce its bond-buying program. The term that report coined became a quick and easy way for investors to give voice to fears of a broader emerging markets rout, propelled by runs on the Turkish lira, Brazilian real and South African rand. These fears were realized this week when Turkey, seen by most investors as the most fragile of the Fragile Five, raised interest rates 4.25 percentage points on Tuesday. The sharper-than-expected increase by the country’s central bank — which previously took a fairly passive approach to defending its currency — was intended to persuade foreign investors, as well as corporate and household savers, to hold on to their lira instead of exchanging them for dollars. As with other members of the Fragile Five, Turkey relies heavily on fickle short-term investment from foreigners to finance gaping current account deficits — the result of which has been a currency that many investors say is overvalued. Investment analysts love to come up with

Q.1 Which of the following statements is/are true under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) ? 1. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a state shall not exceed 250 nautical miles. 2. All states enjoy freedom of navigation and over flight through the EEZ of other state. 3. Only the coastal state can build artificial islands and structures in its EEZ. Which of the above statements are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 3 only Ans. D   Some of the key features of the Convention are the following:     * Coastal States exercise sovereignty over their territorial sea which they have the right to establish its breadth up to a limit not to exceed 12 nautical miles; foreign vessels are allowed “innocent passage” through those waters; * Ships and aircraft of all countries are allowed “transit passage” through straits used for international navigation; States bordering the straits can regulate navigational and other aspects of passage; * Archipelagic States, made up of a group or groups of closely related islands and interconnecting waters, have sovereignty over a sea area enclosed by straight lines drawn between the outermost points of the islands; the waters between the islands are declared archipelagic waters where States may establish sea lanes and air routes in which all other States enjoy the right of archipelagic passage through such designated sea lanes; * Coastal States have sovereign rights in a 200-nautical mile exclusive economic zone (EEZ) with respect to natural resources and certain economic activities, and exercise jurisdiction over marine science research and environmental protection; * All other States have freedom of navigation and overflight in the EEZ, as well as freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines; * Land-locked and geographically disadvantaged States have the right to participate on an equitable basis in exploitation of an appropriate part of the surplus of the living resources of the EEZ’s of coastal States of the same region or sub-region; highly migratory species of fish and marine mammals are accorded special protection; * Coastal States have sovereign rights over the continental shelf (the national area of the seabed) for exploring and exploiting it; the shelf can extend at least 200 nautical miles from the shore, and more under specified circumstances; * Coastal States share with the international community part of the revenue derived from exploiting resources from any part of their shelf beyond 200 miles; * The Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf shall make recommendations to States on the shelf’s outer boundaries when it extends beyond 200 miles; * All States enjoy the traditional freedoms of navigation, overflight, scientific research and fishing on the high seas; they are obliged to adopt, or cooperate with other States in adopting, measures to manage and conserve living resources; * The limits of the territorial sea, the exclusive economic zone and continental shelf of islands are determined in accordance with rules applicable to land territory, but rocks which could not sustain human habitation or economic life of their own would have no economic zone or continental shelf; * States bordering enclosed or semi-enclosed seas are expected to cooperate in managing living resources, environmental and research policies and activities; * Land-locked States have the right of access to and from the sea and enjoy freedom of transit through the territory of transit States; * States are bound to prevent and control marine pollution and are liable for damage caused by violation of their international obligations to combat such pollution; * All marine scientific research in the EEZ and on the continental shelf is subject to the consent of the coastal State, but in most cases they are obliged to grant consent to other States when the research is to be conducted for peaceful purposes and fulfils specified criteria; * States are bound to promote the development and transfer of marine technology “on fair and reasonable terms and conditions”, with proper regard for all legitimate interests; * States Parties are obliged to settle by peaceful means their disputes concerning the interpretation or application of the Convention; * Disputes can be submitted to the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea established under the Convention, to the International Court of Justice, or to arbitration. Conciliation is also available and, in certain circumstances, submission to it would be compulsory. The Tribunal has exclusive jurisdiction over deep seabed mining disputes.     Q.2 Which ministry is responsible for administration of Insecticide Act 1968? A) Ministry of Law and Justice B) Ministry of Agriculture C) Ministry of Health D) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises Ans.  B   Q.3 Which one among the following is not a major reason for the deceleration of growth in Indian economy since 2011-2012? A) High inflation following the monetary and fiscal stimulus during the global recession B) Decline in investment in infrastructure due to high interest rate C) Slowing down in population growth rate leading to erosion of demographic dividend D) Slowing global economy leading to fall in exports Ans. B   Q.4 The decision of government of India to allow oil companies to increase the price of the diesel in small increments at regular intervals will have the impact of A) Widening fiscal deficit B) Increase in demand for diesel cars C) Lowering the price of consumer goods D) Reducing the amount of subsidies in the Union Budget Ans. D   Q.5 Which one among the following is not true regarding the nature of savings in India? A) savings comes from three sources, viz., households, private corporate sectors and the public sector B) In recent years public sector is the largest source of savings in India C) Savings rate has been more than 30% of GDP during the last 10 years D) The share of private corporate sector in savings in India is on the increase during the last 10 years Ans. B In India, the biggest source of savings is

Q.1  Consider the following statements regarding balance of payments of India during 2011-12 are correct? 1. Trade balance, which is defined as exports minus imports of goods and services was negative 2. Net invisibles , which includes remittances from Indians settled abroad, was positive 3. Net Foreign Direct Investment was negative Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 only D) 1 and 3 only Ans. D Highlights of BoP during January-March (Q4) of 2012-13 •  India’s current account deficit (CAD) moderated sharply to 3.6 per cent of GDP in Q4 of 2012-13 from a historically high level of 6.7 per cent of GDP in Q3 of 2012-13 as trade deficit narrowed. •  Merchandise exports (BoP basis) increased by 5.9 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as compared with 2.6 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12. •  Merchandise imports recorded a marginal decline of 1.0 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as against an increase of 22.6 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12. Essentially non-oil non-gold component of imports showed a decline, reflecting slowdown in domestic economic activity. •  As a result, trade deficit narrowed to US$ 45.6 billion in Q4 of 2012-13 from US$ 51.6 billion in Q4 of 2011-12. •  Net invisibles, however, recorded a decline of 7.7 per cent in Q4 of 2012-13 as compared to a growth of 27.5 per cent in Q4 of 2011-12 on account of decline in net services, transfers and income receipts. •  Net capital inflows under financial account moderated in Q4 of 2012-13 largely due to slowdown in net portfolio investment and net repayment of loans by banks and corporate. However, net capital inflows were more than adequate to finance CAD, resulting in accretion of US$ 2.7 billion to the foreign exchange reserves.   Q.2 The decision of government of India to allow oil companies to increase the price of the diesel in small increments at regular intervals will have the impact of A) Widening fiscal deficit B) Increase in demand for diesel cars C) Lowering the price of consumer goods D) Reducing the amount of subsidies in the Union Budget Ans. D   Q.3 Which one among the following is not true regarding the nature of savings in India? A) savings comes from three sources, viz., households, private corporate sectors and the public sector B) In recent years public sector is the largest source of savings in India C) Savings rate has been more than 30% of GDP during the last 10 years D) The share of private corporate sector in savings in India is on the increase during the last 10 years Ans. B In India, the biggest source of savings is the household sector, followed by the private corporate sector and the public sector.   Q.4 Which one among the following is not a major reason for the deceleration of growth in Indian economy since 2011-2012? A) High inflation following the monetary and fiscal stimulus during the global recession B) Decline in investment in infrastructure due to high interest rate C) Slowing down in population growth rate leading to erosion of demographic dividend D) Slowing global economy leading to fall in exports Ans. B   Q.5 The BASIC group of industries mainly coordinates their policies and stances related to A) Maritime security B) Climate change C) UN reform D) Financial stability Ans. D   Q.6 Annual GDP growth of sub-5 percent for four successive years was witnessed in the A) Mid 1980s B) Mid 1990s C) Mid 2000s D) Mid 1980s and mid 1990s Ans. A    

Q.1 India is represented at the IMF by an executive director . He also represents : 1. Bangladesh 2. Sri lanka 3. Bhutan 4. Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) Only 1 Ans. A   Q.2 Which among the following is not the idea of global security emerged in 1990 in response to the global nature of threats ? A) Global warming B) International terrorism C) Internal disturbances D) Health epidemics like AIDS & bird flu Ans. C   Q.3 Land reclamation is the subject dealt by : A) Ministry of rural development B) Ministry of agriculture C) Ministry of panchayati raj D) Ministry of earth sciences Ans. B   Q.4 Which of the following is superimposed international boundary ? A) USA –Mexico boundary B) India-Pakistan boundary along Jammu & Kashmir C) 38th North parallel boundary between North & south Korea D) Chile-Argentina boundary along Andes Ans. B   Q.5 Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Bhopal Gas Leak disaster & special laws related thereto ? A) Ministry of petroleum & natural gas B) Ministry of home affairs C) Ministry of science & technology D) Ministry of Chemical & fertilizers Ans. D   Q.6 The Indo-Us nuclear deal signed in the year 2008 enables American investment in what aspect of Indian industry ? A) Nuclear defence technology B) Nuclear safety & disaster management C) Nuclear energy D) Nuclear medicine Ans. A  

Q.1 Statements: 1) Private & public sectors are classified on the basis of nature of economic conditions. 2) The dual economy is a mixture of Industrial sector & Manufacturing sector. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D *The dual economy is a mixture of Agricultural sector & Modern Industrial Sector. * Private & public sectors are classified on the basis of ownership of enterprises.   Q.2 statements: 1) Net National product at factor cost is equivalent to National Income 2) National income is based upon Production of goods & services Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C   Q.3 Which among the following are the components of HDI ? 1) Decent standard of living 2) Infant Mortality 3) Longevity 4) Educational attainment Codes: A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A   Q.4 Which among the following are correct ? 1) Balanced budget multiplier is unity when taxes are lump-sum taxes 2) Balanced budget multiplier is less than unity when taxes are ad valorem taxes 3) Tax multiplier is less than the government expenditure multiplier 4) Tax multiplier is more than the government multiplier Codes: A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A   Q.5 Which among the following is true with respect to the monetary approach to the balance of payments ? A) BOP disequilibrium are not automatically corrected in the long run B) BOP deficit results from an excess demand of money in the nation C) It views the balance of payments as an essentially monetary phenomenon D) BOP surplus results from an excess supply of money Ans. C   Q.6 Which among the following is an artificial currency ? A) ADR B) GDR C) SDR D) ADR & SDR Ans. C   Q.7 In context with the wholesale price index, consider the following statements: 1) It captures the price movement extensively & taken as an indicator of the inflation 2) The office of the economic adviser is entrusted with the function of compilation & publication of the weekly wholesale price index numbers in India Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C