DAILY FRAMED QUESTIONS
Q.586 & 587 WILL BE FRAMED ON 23rd JULY 2023
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.585 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor consider the following :
It consists of electrified single track segment of 1409 km
It also includes states of Punjab & Haryana
Select the correct statement using the code given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. B
It consists of electrified single track segment of 447 km & Double track segment of 1409 km
Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor is an under-construction broad gauge freight corridor in India.
The railway will run between Ludhiana in Punjab and Dankuni (near Kolkata) in West Bengal via Khurja in Uttar Pradesh.
This railway line is one of the multiple freight corridors being constructed by the Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation
of India (DFCCIL), a public-sector unit (PSU) under the Ministry of Railways.
The Eastern DFC will mostly have double tracks and will be electrified, but the section from Ludhiana to Khurja (365 km)
will be single line electrified due to lack of space. This freight corridor will cover a total distance of 1,839 km.
This corridor is having a 46 km branch line which is joining Khurja (Bulandshahr district) on the Eastern DFC with Dadri
(Gautam Buddha Nagar district) on the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (Western DFC).
As of June 2022, 923 km or 50% of the Eastern DFC has been completed and 99% required land for these have been acquired.
The Eastern DFC is expected to be complete by March 2023.
First two DFCs, Western DFC, from Dadri, Uttar Pradesh to JNPT (Navi Mumbai) and Eastern DFC from Punjab to West Bengal,
which will decongest railway network by moving 70% of India’s goods trains to these two corridors, are both on track for
completion in March 2023. However, due to the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic, which caused lockdowns, curfews and restrictions,
it resulted in delays in work due to lack of labour.
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.584 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Which among the following constitutes the Non-tax revenues of the government ?
Interest payments
Union Excise duties
Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets
How many of the above are correct
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None
View Answer
Ans. D
EXPENDITURES OF THE GOVERNMENT :
Interest payments
Grants-in aid for creation of capital assets
3.Revenue Expenditure
Capital Expenditure
NON TAX REVENUE :
1.Interest receipts
Dividents & Profits
External Grants
Other non-tax revenues
Receipts of union territories
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.583 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to Suez Canal, consider the following statements :
It allows ships to travel between Europe & South Asia without navigating around Africa thereby reducing the sea voyage distance between Europe & India by about 7000 km
A new stretch of the canal was just opened in 2015 . The northern terminus is Port said where there are two outlets to the sea ; the Southern terminus is Port Tewfik at the city of Suez , where there is one outlet to the sea
The canal is single lane with passing places in the Ballah bypass & Great Bitter lake
How many of the above statements are correct
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None
View Answer
Ans. C
All three are correct
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and dividing Africa and Asia. The 193.30 km (120.11 mi) long canal is a popular trade route between Europe and Asia.
In 1858, Ferdinand de Lesseps formed the Suez Canal Company for the express purpose of building the canal. Construction of the canal lasted from 1859 to 1869. The canal officially opened on 17 November 1869. It offers vessels a direct route between the North Atlantic and northern Indian oceans via the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea, avoiding the South Atlantic and southern Indian oceans and reducing the journey distance from the Arabian Sea to London by approximately 8,900 kilometres (5,500 mi), to 10 days at 20 knots (37 km/h; 23 mph) or 8 days at 24 knots (44 km/h; 28 mph).
The canal extends from the northern terminus of Port Said to the southern terminus of Port Tewfik at the city of Suez. In 2021, more than 20,600 vessels traversed the canal (an average of 56 per day)
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.582 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to Economic curves, Consider the following :
Kuznets curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth
Laffer curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality
Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality
How many of the above are correct
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None
View Answer
Ans. A
3RD STATEMENT IS CORRECT
Kuznets curve : Shows the relationship between economic growth & inequality
Laffer curve : Shows that states lower tax rates boosts economic growth
Lorentz curve : It is a graph depicting of income inequality or wealth inequality
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.581 FOR UPSC, UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Sidi Saiyyed Mosque consider the following statements :
The mosque is entirely arcuated & is known for its ten intricately carved stone latticework windows
It was built in the retinue of sultan Ahmad Shah Bilal Jhajar Khan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
The Sidi Saiyyed Mosque, popularly known as Sidi Saiyyid ni Jali locally, built in 1572–73 AD (Hijri year 980), is one of
the most famous mosques of Ahmedabad, a city in the state of Gujarat, India. The mosque was built by Sidi Sayyad,
a Habshi nobleman, in 1572–73.
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.580 FOR UPSC,UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to Rani Ki Vav (Queen’s stepwell), consider the following statements :
It was built by Queen Padmavati
It is designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water
It is also present on the new currency note of Rs. 100/-
How many of the above statements are correct
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) All three
D) None
View Answer
Ans. B
2 & 3 STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT
Rani Ki Vav is a stepwell situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat, India. It is located on the banks of the Saraswati River. Its construction is attributed to Udayamati, the spouse of the 11th-century Chaulukya king Bhima I. Silted over, it was rediscovered in the 1940s and restored in the 1980s by the Archaeological Survey of India. It has been listed as one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India since 2014.
The finest and one of the largest examples of its kind, this stepwell is designed as an inverted temple highlighting the sanctity of water. It is divided into seven levels of stairs with sculptural panels. These panels have more than 500 principal sculptures and over a thousand minor ones that combine religious and symbolic imagery.
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.579 FOR UPSC,UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
The water logged soils are rendered infertile because of
Lack of aeration
Reduced soil temperature
Weed growth
Enhanced soil erosion
How many of the above statements are correct
A) Only one
B) Only two
C) Only three
D) Only Four
View Answer
Ans. B
1 & 2 Statements are correct
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.578 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Medieval history, what was Anwar-e-Suhaili ?
A) Persian translation of Upanishad
B) It denotes the Expersionist policy by the Fourth ruler of Mughal dynasty
C) Persian translation of Panchatantra
D) Akbar’s religious policy was based on this
View Answer
Ans. C
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.577 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Who among the following is the author of the Nasir –e- Alamgiri ?
A) Arif Kandhari
B) Mulla dawood
C) Shaki Mustand Khan
D) Khafi khan
View Answer
Ans. C
Nasir –e- Alamgiri : Shaki Mustand Khan
Tabaqat-e-Akbari : Arif Kandhari
Tarikh-e-Alfi : Mulla dawood
Muntakhab-ul-Luwav : Khafi khan
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.576 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the medieval History, what was Diwan-i-Insha ?
A) Custodian of government paper under Mughal rule
B) Responsibility of maintaining trade & economic relations with foreign rulers
C) Maintaining spies & Intelligence affairs
D) Responsibility of managing royal household
View Answer
Ans. A
Diwan-i-Insha : Custodian of government paper under Mughal rule
Diwan-i-Rasalt : Responsibility of maintaining trade & economic relations with foreign rulers
Diwan-i-Qaza : Maintaining spies & Intelligence affairs
Diwan-i-Saman : Responsibility of managing royal household
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.575 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Medieval history, which among the following is described by the Tarikh-e-Alfi ?
A) It is written to commemorate 1000 years of Islam
B) It provides description of the reforms made by the Akbar
C) It provides description of the Babar being poisoned by Ibrahim Lodhi’s mother
D) Akbar was declared supreme in religious matters as well
View Answer
Ans. A
Tarikh-e-Alfi- It is written to commemorate 1000 years of Islam
Tabaqat-i-Akbari : description of the reforms made by the Akbar
Humayunnamah : description of the Babar being poisoned by Ibrahim Lodhi’s mother
Mehjar : Akbar was declared supreme in religious matters as well
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.574 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS, EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Which among the following is not built by Akbar ?
A) Panch Mahal
B) Itmad-Ud-Daulah
C) Diwan-e-Aam
D) Diwan-e-Khas
View Answer
Ans. B
Itmad-Ud-Daulah – By Jahangir at Agra
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.573 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana, consider the following statements :
Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person
To be eligible ,the applicants should be covered under the National Pension Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojana 2019 :
Minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsto shopkeepers , retail traders & self employed person
To be eligible ,the applicants should not be covered under the National Pension Scheme
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.572 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Premium rates of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Rabi 2% of Sum Insured
Kharif 1.5% of Sum Insured
Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) All are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
Rabi 1.5% of Sum Insured
Kharif 2% of Sum Insured
Kharif & Rabi 5 % of Sum Insured
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.571 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Insurance, What is Floater Policy ?
A) A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be
B) A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood
C) A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras
D) All of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
Floater Policy :A policy under the farms of which protection follows movable property , covering it wherever it may be
Flood Insurance : A policy designed to reimburse property owners from loss due to defined peril of flood
Personal Articles Floater : A policy provides all risk coverages , subject to reasonable exclusions for valuabe items such as furs, jewellery, Cameras
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.570 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Computer, what is DCAF ?
A) Document Coprocessor Access Facility
B) Distributed Console Automated File
C) Distributed Console Access Facility
D) Disk Coprocessor Automated File
View Answer
Ans. C
DCAF : Distributed Console Access Facility
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.569 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the PM Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana , consider the following statements :
Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2200
Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 10,000
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. D
-Maximum contribution from the workers can’t exceed Rs. 2400
-Monthly income of the worker should be below Rs. 15000
-It is available to unorganized workers between 18 to 40 yrs of age
– Subscriber will receive a minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per year after attaining age of 60 years
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.568 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Which among the following are included in Voucher ?
Cash Payment
Cash Receipt
Credit Transactions
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) Only 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Following comes under Voucher :
Cash Payment
Cash Receipt
Credit Transactions
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.567 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS ETC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Which among the following is not the ruler of Gurjara Pratihara dynasty ?
A) Munj
B) Vatsaraj
C) Mihir Bhoj
D) Nagabhatta II
View Answer
Ans. A
Rulers of Gurjara Pratihara dynasty :
Vatsaraj
Mihir Bhoj
Nagabhatta II
Nagabhatta I
Rulers of Parmar dynasty :
Munj
Sindhuraj
Jai Singh
Bhoj
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.566 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS ETC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Jainism , What is Nirjara ?
A) It is necessary to suppress the material element
B) It is the law of giving up life by fasting
C) According to Jainism, due to ignorance the soul is attracted towards Karma
D) It is the cessation of the already existing karma in the soul
View Answer
Ans. D
Kayaklesh : It is necessary to suppress the material element. In this, the law of doing penance, fasting, Sallekhana
Sallekhana : It is the law of giving up life by fasting
Ashrava : According to Jainism, due to ignorance the soul is attracted towards Karma
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.565 FOR UPPCS, UKPCS ETC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the ancient History , what was Ratnin ?
A) An author of the Vrihadaranyaka
B) A talented & respected sage of later vedic period
C) High Officials of state in the Vedic period
D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans . C
Maharishi Yajnavalkya :
-An author of the Vrihadaranyaka
-A talented & respected sage of later vedic period
Ratnin in ancient India:
It was the 12 Ratnins or 12 officers of King and Parishad. The 12 Ratnins included Mahishi (Queen), Yuvraj (Crown Prince),
Purohit (Head Priest), etc. Tribal assemblies Vidata and Gana lost their importance. Sabha and Samiti lost their tribal
characteristics and became Parishad.
COPYRIGHT FRAMED QUESTION Q.564 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Which among the following is/are correctly matched :
LABOUR LAWS YEAR
Payment of Wages Act 1948
Workmen’s compensation Act 1923
Trade Union Act 1926
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. B
Payment of Wages Act 1936
Workmen’s compensation Act 1923
Trade Union Act 1926
COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.563 FOR EPFO/APFC FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Minimum wages Act 1948,which among the following is/are the norm(s) for fixing the minimum wage :
Minimum food requirement of 2100 calories per average Indian adult
Cloth requirement of 72 yards per annum per family
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. B
Minimum food requirement of 2700 calories per average Indian adult
Cloth requirement of 72 yards per annum per family
Three consumption units per earner
COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.562 FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Consider the following statements :
Sunderban is declared as Ramsar site in 2019
Sunderban was desIgnatd as Biosphere reserve by UNESCO in 2001
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
Sunderban is declared as Ramsar site in 2019
Sunderban was desIgnatd as Biosphere reserve by UNESCO in 2001
COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.561 FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
With reference to the Carlye Circular, consider the following statements :
It was issued by the Chief secretary of British India, Lord stanley on 22 Oct 1905
It was termed as the declaration of slavery
It was issued when the Indian youth started opposing western education against the partition of bengal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 2 & 3
View Answer
Ans. D
It was issued by the chief secretary of Bengal, Thomas Carlyle on 22 October 1905.
According to the circular ‘If any college violates the government order and the student quits the educational institution
then no assistance will be provided by the government to the institute’. It was termed the declaration of slavery.
COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.560 FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
– 1 AUG 2022 (FOR STATE PCS & UPSC)
With reference to Dampier & Hodges line, consider the following statements :
It is an imaginary line passing through 24 parganas south & North districts of Sunderbans
It indicates the northern most limits of the estuarine zone affected by tidal fluctiations’
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
This line indicates the eco region of Sunderbans in India
It is an imaginary line passing through 24 parganas south & North districts of Sunderbans
It indicates the northern most limits of the estuarine zone affected by tidal fluctiations’
COPYRIGHT CHALLENGE QUESTION Q.559 FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
– 1 AUG 2022 (FOR STATE PCS & UPSC)
With reference to Santhal rebellion, consider the following statements :
The revold took place to expel the outsiders from the area of Daman-i-Koh & to oppress the Zamindari system
A separate district of santhal Pargana was created by the government to pacify the Santhals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
The revolt took place to expel the outsiders from the area of Daman-i-Koh & to oppress the Zamindari system
A separate district of santhal Pargana was created by the government to pacify the Santhals
The Santhal rebellion was a rebellion in present-day Jharkhand and West Bengal , Eastern India against both the British East India Company (BEIC) and zamindari system by the Santhal.
It started on June 30, 1855 and on November 10, 1855, martial law was proclaimed by the East India Company which lasted until January 3, 1856 when martial law was suspended and the rebellion was eventually suppressed by the Presidency armies.
The rebellion was led by the four sibling Brothers – Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav
COPYRIGHT Q.558 FRAMED FROM THE HINDU ” 2021″
Recently our scientists have found a new Alpine Plant species in India, that have the ability to grow at higher
elevation. Where it has been found ?
A) Kerala
B) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Lakshadweep
View Answer
Ans. C
New Alpine Plant Species in India: Cremanthodium indicum discovered in Arunachal Pradesh
COPYRIGHT Q.557 FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Which among the following is not an Alpine Plant ?
A) Forbs
B) Lichens
C) Cushion Plants
D) Cotton Grass
View Answer
Ans. D
Examples of Plants found in the Tundra:
Arctic Moss, Arctic Willow, Caribou Moss, Labrador Tea, Arctic Poppy, Cotton Grass, Lichens and Moss.
What are Alpine Plants?
Alpine plants are those that grow at a high elevation and above the tree line.
These plant species generally grow in alpine tundra.
The species include perennial grasses, forbs, cushion plants, mosses and lichens.
COPYRIGHT Q.556 FRAMED FROM CLASS 7TH NCERT
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Hatta – Market Streets
Manigramam and Nanadesi – Taxes
Kaikkolars – Weavers
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. B
Manigramam and Nanadesi- There were several such guilds in south India
from the eighth
Weavers such as the Saliyar or Kaikkolars
COPYRIGHT Q.555 FRAMED FROM CLASS 7TH NCERT
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Moors – Muslim Merchants
Devadasis – Temple dancers
Hundi – Note recording a deposit
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
COPYRIGHT Q.554 FRAMED FROM CLASS 7TH NCERT
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Moors – Muslim Merchants
Devadasis – Temple dancers
Hundi – Note recording a deposit
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
COPYRIGHT Q.553 FRAMED FROM CLASS 7TH NCERT
With reference to the Banjaras, what was Tanda ?
A) Caravan
B) Horses
C) Raw materials
D) Food grains
View Answer
Ans. A
These Banjaras carry their household – wives and children – along with them.
One tanda consists of many families.
COPYRIGHT Q.552 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the ancient history, which among the following is/are
correctly matched ?
Kansari – Bell Metal Workers
Kolu – Oil Pressers
Chauchala – Four roofed temples
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Double-roofed – Dochala
Morris cotton printing
COPYRIGHT Q.551 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the modern period who was Mufti ?
A) A jurist of the Muslim community responsible for expounding the law
B) It is a term given to Faujdari Adalat
C) Interpretations of local laws given by Brahman Pandits
D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
A criminal court (faujdari adalat ) and a civil court (diwani adalat)
Qazi – A judge
Mufti – A jurist of the Muslim community responsible for expounding the law that the qazi would administer
Other terms :
Dharmashastras – Sanskrit texts prescribing social rules and codes of behaviour, composed from c. 500 BCE onwards
Sawar – Men on horses
Musket – A heavy gun used by infantry soldiers
Matchlock – An early type of gun in which the powder was ignited by a match
COPYRIGHT Q.550 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the ancient history, which among the following is/are
correctly matched ?
Kansari – Bell Metal Workers
Kolu – Oil Pressers
Chauchala – Four roofed temples
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Double-roofed – Dochala
Morris cotton printing
COPYRIGHT Q.549 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the modern period who was Mufti ?
A) A jurist of the Muslim community responsible for expounding the law
B) It is a term given to Faujdari Adalat
C) Interpretations of local laws given by Brahman Pandits
D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
A criminal court (faujdari adalat ) and a civil court (diwani adalat)
Qazi – A judge
Mufti – A jurist of the Muslim community responsible for expounding the law that the qazi would administer
Other terms :
Dharmashastras – Sanskrit texts prescribing social rules and codes of behaviour, composed from c. 500 BCE onwards
COPYRIGHT Q.548 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
During the british period, What was Mahal ?
A)It is a revenue estate which may be a village or a group of villages
B) It refers to the meetings held in the durbar
C) It is a tax collected by the Indian Officials
D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
COPYRIGHT Q.547 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the tribal groups, which among the following is/are
correctly matched ?
Labadis – Cattle herders
Gaddis – Shepherds
Bakarwals – Goats
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
COPYRIGHT Q.546 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the medieval period , what was Calicos ?
A) Cotton Textiles
B) Iron & Steel Industries
C) Jute Industries
D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
COPYRIGHT Q.545 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the Indian textiles, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Bandanna – It refers to any brightly coloured and printed scarf for the neck or head
Jamdani – It is a fine muslin on which decorative motifs are woven on the loom
Takli – Household spinning instrument
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Jamdani is a fine muslin on which decorative motifs are woven on the loom, typically in grey and white. Often a mixture
of cotton and gold thread was used, as in the cloth in this picture. The most important centres of jamdani weaving were
Dacca in Bengal and Lucknow in the United Provinces.
COPYRIGHT Q.544 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
Aurang – Warehouse where goods are collected
Bellows – A device or equipment that can pump air
Slag heap – The waste left when smelting metal
Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Aurang – Warehouse where goods are collected
Bellows – A device or equipment that can pump air
Slag heap – The waste left when smelting metal
COPYRIGHT Q.543 FRAMED FROM CLASS 8TH NCERT
With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly marched ?
Mobato : Village headman
Pykars : Travelling traders
Chapkan : Long button coat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Mobato : Village headman
Pykars : Travelling traders
Chapkan : Long button coat
COPYRIGHT Q.542 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
With reference to the news , what is NIRVIK SCHEME ?
A) It is an integrated approach to bring about a robust financial inclusion and ultimately provide banking services to all households in the country
B) ‘NIRVIK’ scheme to enhance loan availability for exporters and ease the lending process
C) To develop, improve and update need based rescue and emergency response services to the mining industry.
D) The goal of this scheme is to make girls socially and financially self-reliant through education.
View Answer
Ans. B
What is NIRVIK scheme? How will it help exporters?
NIRVIK scheme: The ECGC has introduced ‘NIRVIK’ scheme to enhance loan availability for exporters and
ease the lending process.
Under the ‘NIRVIK’ scheme, the gems, jewellery and diamond(GJD) sector borrowers with limit of over
Rs 80 crore will have a higher premium rate in comparison to the non-GJD sector borrowers of this
category due to the higher loss ratio.
ECGC: About
The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) is a fully government-owned company that was
established in 1957 to promote exports by providing credit insurance services.
COPYRIGHT Q.541 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the news , what is UMMID Initiative ?
- A) These are humanitarian initiatives that raise and disburse additional funds for infectious
diseases– such as AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria
- B) It is an Indian health programme for improving healthcare delivery across rural India
- C) The Health Care InitiativE (HCI) fosters and promotes faculty research, supports the development
of a portfolio of high-impact educational programs
- D) It is an initiative to tackle inherited genetic diseases of newborn babies
View Answer
Ans. D
UMMID initiative to tackle inherited genetic diseases of newborn babies
UMMID initiative aims to create awareness about genetic disorders and establish molecular
diagnostics in hospitals.
COPYRIGHT Q.540 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- In context with the UNGA (United Nation General Assembly) consider the following statements :
- The UN General Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council
- All the 193 UN member states have equal representation in the UN General Assembly
- US has always spoken first at the UN General Assembly since the 10th UNGA in 1955.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. A
UNGA 2019: What is UNGA?
Who gets to vote at UNGA?
Each sovereign state gets one vote and the votes are not binding on the membership, except in budgetary matters.
The UN General Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council.
What are the powers of UNGA?
The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members.
Who is the current UNGA President?
The current UNGA President is Tijjani Muhammad-Bande of Nigeria, who was elected to the post on June 4, 2019. He succeeds María Fernanda Espinosa of Ecuador, whose term ends in September 2019.
There are how many countries in the UN General Assembly?
All the 193 UN member states have equal representation in the UN General Assembly.
Which countries are not a part of UNGA?
Among the world’s 196 countries, 193 are UN member states and
three nations- Palestine, the Vatican City and Taiwan are not a part of the international organization as their country status is not recognized globally due to political and religious reasons.
Is North Korea a UN member state?
The two Koreas-North and South Korea were admitted as members of the United Nations in 1991.
Which country always speaks first at the UNGA?
Brazil has always spoken first at the UN General Assembly since the 10th UNGA in 1955.
COPYRIGHT Q.539 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Khanderi, which among the following is/are correct ?
- INS Khanderi construction began in April 2009 67.5 metres long and 12.3 metres tall
- It is capable of saving oxygen availability and can stay underwater for long periods
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
Key Features of INS Khanderi
– The INS Khanderi construction began in April 2009. It was first built into five separate segments
which were later welded together.
– INS Khanderi is 67.5 metres long and 12.3 metres tall.
– Its hull form, fin and hydroplanes have been designed to enable minimum underwater resistance.
– The submarine’s Permanently Magnetised Propulsion Motor is powered by 360 battery cells. Each
battery cell weighs 750 kg.
– It is capable of saving oxygen availability and can stay underwater for long periods
COPYRIGHT Q.538 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- For which conference of Parties , “Time for Action” Tagline has been given ?
- A) COP 23
- B) COP 24
- C) COP 25
- D) COP 26
View Answer
Ans. C
COP 25 Tagline: Time for Action.
No decision on long-term climate finance
The parties also failed to decide on long-term climate finance, which is the financial support given
to the developing countries by the developed countries to fight against climate change. This was
agreed upon in the Paris climate agreement.
2020 Climate talks
The next UN Climate talks will be held in Glasgow, Scotland.
COPYRIGHT Q.537 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Why the launch of RISAT-2BR1 marked major milestones for ISRO ?
- This was the 50th flight of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
- It was also the 75th Launch Vehicle Mission from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
RISAT2-BR1 is the second satellite in the RISAT-2B series and is expected to be followed by two more
satellites.
RISAT2-BR1
- RISAT2-BR1 is the second satellite in the RISAT-2B series and is expected to be followed by two
more satellites.
- The satellite, with a mission life of five years, follows the successful launch of RISAT-2B in
May 2019.
- RISAT2-BR1 weighs about 628 kg and it would be used in various fields such as forestry,
agriculture and disaster management support.
- The current domestic remote sensing satellite is not equipped to capture images of the earth
during cloud cover and hence, India had to rely on the images provided by Canadian satellites to
obtain information regarding the same.
ISRO’s major milestones:
The launch of RISAT-2BR1 marked major milestones for ISRO such as:
- This was the 50th flight of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the second flight of
PSLV-QL.
- It was also the 75th Launch Vehicle Mission from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh.
COPYRIGHT Q.536 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Citizenship Amendment Bill-2019 , consider the following statements :
- The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 covers only 6 communities
- As per the bill it is compulsory to reside in India for 6 years to get Indian citizenship
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
Citizenship Amendment Bill-2019 :
- The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 (CAB) will be granted citizenship of India to Hindu,
Christian, Sikh, Parsi, Jain, and Buddhist people who have fled from Pakistan, Afghanistan and
Bangladesh due to the religious persecution.
- Such illegal migrants who have entered India by 31 December 2014 will be able to apply for Indian
citizenship.
- Right now, it is compulsory to reside in India for 11 years to get Indian citizenship.
The new bill reduces the residency limit to six years.
- The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 covers 6 communities – Hindu, Jain, Sikh, Parsi, Buddhist,
and Christian migrants.
- It has also been arranged that any legal action already taken against such people for s
displacement or illegal migration will not affect his eligibility for permanent citizenship.
- If the OCI cardholders violate the conditions, the center will have the right to cancel their card.
- This bill was introduced in Lok Sabha in 2016. It was passed in Lok Sabha this year but stuck in
the Rajya Sabha.
- The Citizenship Amendment Bill was passed to amend the Citizenship Act, 1955.
- It has been decided to give citizenship to people of other religions except Muslims in the new
bill. The Opposition is taking up this matter and saying it a biased bill.
- The Ministry of Home Affairs has empowered the concerned authorities in Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi to provide citizenship and natural
certificates to migrants under sections 5 and 6 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
COPYRIGHT Q.535 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- With reference to the cultural history of India, what is Tarangam ?
- A) It is the sequence of kathak dance exhibiting elegant & slow movements of eyebrows ,neck & wrist
- B) Kuchipudi dance is usually concluded with the Tarangam in which the dancer performs on the top of
the brass plate
- C) Bharatnatyam dance ends with it, in which certain words or syllables are used in a very fast manner
- D) It is a dance form of Mohiniyattam in a beautiful feminine style with surging flow of body
movements
View Answer
Ans. B
Kuchipudi dance is usually concluded with the Tarangam in which the dancer performs on the top of the
brass plate
COPYRIGHT Q.534 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- Nagabandha mudra is associated with which of the following classical dance ?
- A) Kuchipudi
- B) Kathak
- C) Manipuri
- D) Kathakali
View Answer
Ans. C
Nagabandha mudra is performed using both the hands
COPYRIGHT Q.533 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- With reference to the Kathakali , consider the following statements :
- It covers every part of the body from facial muscles to fingers, eyes, hands & wrists
- Movements of the eyebrows , eye balls & lower eye lids are not used to an extent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
Kathakali :
It covers every part of the body from facial muscles to fingers, eyes, hands & wrists
Movements of the eyebrows , eye balls & lower eye lids are not used to an extent
COPYRIGHT Q.532 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- With reference to the cultural history of India, the terms “Alarippu”, “Tillana”, “Mangalam” are
associated with which of the following classical dance ?
- A) Bharatnatyam
- B) Kathakali
- C) Kuchipudi
D)Kathak
View Answer
Ans. A
Alarippu”, “Tillana”, “Mangalam” are associated with Bharatnatyam
COPYRIGHT Q.531 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- With reference to the cultural history, Aharya Abhinaya is associated with which of the following ?
- A) It is related to the expression that is carried out through the speech
- B) Ornamentation comes under this category
- C) It is related to the physical movements of the body
- D) It is the involuntary movement such as breaking of voice, tear,etc
View Answer
Ans.B
Aharya Abhinaya : Ornamentation comes under this category
Angika Abhinaya : It is related to the physical movements of the body
Vachika Abhinaya : It is related to the expression that is carried out through the speech
Satvika Abginaya : It is the involuntary movement such as breaking of voice, tear,etc
COPYRIGHT Q.530 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- Which one of the following Persian merchant introduced Administrative units to increase the control
of Sultan over the nobles & provinces ?
- A) Muhammad Gawan
- B) Nicolo de conti
- C) Abdur Razzaq
- D) Domingo Paes
View Answer
Ans. A
Muhammad Gawan : introduced Administrative units called “Tarafs” to increase the control of Sultan
over the nobles & provinces
COPYRIGHT Q.529 – FRAMED FROM Ram Sharan Sharma-India’s Ancient Past
- What was Kathi during the Maratha administration ?
- A) These were the taxes collected not only in the Marartha kingdom but in the neighbouring territories
of the mughal empire
- B) It was one fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas
- C) It was an additional levy of one tenth on those lands over which the Marathas claimed herediatary
rights
- D) It was the yard stick for measuring the land
View Answer
Ans. D
Kathi : It was the yard stick for measuring the land; introduced by Malik Ambar
Chauth & Sardeshmukhi : These were the taxes collected not only in the Marartha kingdom but in the
neighbouring territories of the mughal empire
Chauth : It was one fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas
Sardeshmukhi : It was an additional levy of one tenth on those lands over which the Marathas claimed
herediatary rights
COPYRIGHT Q.528 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Libra cryptocurrency, consider the following statements :
- The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international
currencies
- Demand or scarcity are the driving factors of the Libra currency
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
What is the difference between Bitcoin and Libra cryptocurrency?
Though popular, Bitcoin cryptocurrency has been known to be volatile, especially in recent years.
Unlike Bitcoin, Libra will be backed by a reserve of real assets, meaning that the value of the
currency will be linked to something with intrinsic value rather than driven by demand or scarcity.
The Libra reserve will include bank deposits and government bonds in several international currencies.
The reserve will be administered by a non-profit associated headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
What is Libra Cryptocurrency?
The Libra cryptocurrency is a digital currency, built on a blockchain designed with security in mind.
It will be stored in a digital wallet called ‘Calibra’, which will be available as an app, as well as
within Facebook Messenger and whatsapp as an integrated payments system. This will enable users to
send and receive money through messages.
Will the Libra cryptocurrency work offline as well?
Facebook aims for Libra to be used for offline payments as well including for public transport, buying
groceries or paying bills. Facebook also plans to make its cryptocurrency available for exchange from
traditional currency through physical ATM machines.
Who will be able to access the Libra cryptocurrency?
The Libra cryptocurrency will be accessible to anyone with an entry-level smartphone and data
connectivity.
Who will manage the Libra cryptocurrency project ?
Facebook will not be governing the services of the Libra cryptocurrency. The social media giant has
created an independent organisation called the Libra Association, which will build applications
related to the new digital currency.
Where is Bitcoin legal and illegal?
Introduced in 2009, Bitcoin cryptocurrency is popularly used for transactions in many nations across
the world including the United States, European Union, Canada and Australia. However, the
cryptocurrency is considered illegal in many nations such as China, Russia, Vietnam and Bolivia.
COPYRIGHT Q.527 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Consider the following statements :
“ New Horizon Mission” helps in :
- Understanding the formation of the Plutonian system and the transformation of the early Solar System
- Predicting the onset of monsoons
- Monitoring the pollution of the coastal ecosystems
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1
View Answer
Ans. D
About New Horizons
- The New Horizons spacecraft is now 4.1 billion miles (6.6 billion kilometers) from Earth,
operating normally and speeding deeper into the Kuiper Belt at nearly 33,000 miles (53,000 kilometers)
per hour.
- New Horizons launched on January 19, 2006 and conducted a six-month-long reconnaissance flyby
study of Pluto and its moons in summer 2015.
- The goal of the mission is to understand the formation of the Plutonian system, the Kuiper belt,
and the transformation of the early Solar System.
COPYRIGHT Q.526 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Rudraksh tree, consider the following statements :
- It is a large evergreen tree that has broad-leaves whose seed is traditionally used for prayer beads in Hinduism and Buddhism
- It is mainly found in Western Ghats of Karnataka & Kerala
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
MoU for Plantation of Rudraksh Trees; CTBTO Offers India Observer Status – Current Affairs
Project aims at planting 10,000 Rudraksh trees in the Ganga Basin area in Uttarakhand in association
with the local community.
- Project aims at planting 10,000 Rudraksh trees in the Ganga Basin area in Uttarakhand in association
with the local community.
About Rudraksh Tree:
- Elaeocarpus ganitrus or Rudraksh Tree is a large evergreen tree.
It has broad-leaves whose seed is traditionally used for prayer beads in Hinduism and Buddhism.
- Rudraksh tree develops the fruit in three to four years.
It is mainly found in Gangetic plain, foothills of Himalyas, Nepal, Indonesia etc.
COPYRIGHT Q.525 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Among the following which was frequently mentioned in the news for the declaration of climate
emergency recently?
- A) Ireland
- B) Scotland
- C) New Wales
- D) Netherlands
View Answer
Ans. A
Ireland declares climate emergency; UN appoints actress Dia Mirza as SDG advocate- Current Affairs
The British Parliament became the world’s first to declare a climate emergency by passing the largely
symbolic motion on May 1.
Climate Emergency: What does it mean?
The declaration of the emergency is a call for governments across the world to change their behavior
towards the climate and biodiversity in profound ways, on a sustained basis.
It also involves drastic cut down of greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
COPYRIGHT Q.524 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which one of the following best describes the term “DART” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is an electronic warfare that has the objective to disable enemy’s electronic devices & maintain
effective functioning of a nation’s own electronic system
- B) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting distance education in India
- C) It is a planned space probe that will demonstrate the kinetic effects of crashing an impact
spacecraft into an asteroid moon for planetary defence purposes
- D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. C
Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART)
- Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) is a planned space probe that will demonstrate the
kinetic effects of crashing an impact spacecraft into an asteroid moon for planetary defence purposes.
- The mission is intended to test whether a spacecraft impact could successfully deflect an
asteroid on a collision course with Earth.
COPYRIGHT Q.523 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Recently our scientists have discovered a huge area that is reported to host microorganisms, which
are ready to remove all the nitrogen from the water but traces of oxygen stop them from doing so.
Where it has been discovered ?
- A) Bay of Bengal
- B) Arabian sea
- C) Indian Ocean
- D) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
View Answer
Ans. A
Huge dead zone discovered in the Bay of Bengal
Researchers have discovered a huge area covering about 60000 square km that has little or no oxygen in
the Bay of Bengal. The zone is reported to host microorganisms, which are ready to remove all the
nitrogen from the water but traces of oxygen stop them from doing so.
About Dead zones
- Dead zones are large areas in the ocean that have low oxygen concentration.
- The marine life in these areas mostly suffocates and dies or if they are mobile like the fish then,
they leave the area.
- Though at many times, dead zones occur naturally, scientists are also of the opinion that they are
created due to increased human activity.
- The main cause of the zones created by humans is nutrient pollution. Excess nutrients (nitrogen and
phosphorus) can result in the overgrowth of algae, which later decomposes in the water consuming
excess oxygen, depleting the supply available for the marine life.
Dead zones can be found in virtually every oceanic body, the largest encompassing almost the whole
bottom of the Baltic Sea.
Another large dead zone is located in the Gulf of Mexico. Other dead zones occur off the western coasts
of North and South America and off the coast of Namibia and western coast of India.
Global warming triggered by climate change is predicted to lead to an expansion of these dead zones.
However, it is not certain whether the climate change would lead to the removal of the last traces of
oxygen from the bay as well.
COPYRIGHT Q.522 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following is not the member state of the MERCOSUR ?
- A) Argentina
- B) Brazil
- C) New Zealand
- D) Paraguay
View Answer
Ans. C
South America’s Trade Bloc Mercosur removes Venezuela for failure to follow rules
Mercosur’s member states, in a letter addressed to Venezuela’s Foreign Minister Delcy Rodriguez,
stated that the “oil-rich country had been stripped of membership rights immediately and that it will
be required to renegotiate its membership.”
About Mercosur
- Mercosur is a sub-regional bloc.
- Its full members are Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay.
- Its associate countries are Bolivia, Chile, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador and Suriname, while the observer
countries are New Zealand and Mexico.
- The purpose of the bloc is to promote free trade and the fluid movement of goods, people and currency.
- The official languages of the bloc are Spanish, Portuguese and Guarani.
- The motto of the bloc is “Our North is the South.”
COPYRIGHT Q.521 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- China launches TanSat satellite to monitor global carbon emissions. With reference to the Tansat Satellite consider the following statements :
- The satellite was sent into a sun synchronous orbit about 700 kms above the earth.
- It has a very good vision and can distinguish as small as 1 percent changes in atmospheric CO2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
China launches TanSat satellite to monitor global carbon emissions
The Satellite weighs around 620-kg and it will be located in sun synchronous orbit about 700 kms above
the earth while serving three-year mission life.
Highlights of the TanSat satellite
- The chief designer of TanSat is Yin Zengshan who works at the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS).
- The satellite was sent into a sun synchronous orbit about 700 kms above the earth.
- It will monitor the concentration, distribution and flow of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere.
- It has a very good vision and can distinguish as small as 1 percent changes in atmospheric CO2.
- It will help understanding the climate change and will provide China’s policy makers with independent
data.
COPYRIGHT Q.520 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.Which of the following statements best describes “carbon Disclosure Project 2019”?
- A) An initiative of the Global Reporting, aimed at measuring the carbon reduction activities undertaken by different companies and firms operating in various countries across the globe
- B) It has been launched by the government of India to reduce the black carbon through the promotion of solar plants , lamps, biogas plants & efficient stoves
- C) It has been launched by the environmentalist group to reduce mega tones of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere
- D) It has been launched by the government of India aimed to increase the plant growth by reducing the most potent greenhouse gases
View Answer
Ans. A
India ranks 5th in Carbon Disclosure Project 2019
India is the first developing economy with maximum number of companies committing to the science-based
targets.
Carbon Disclosure Project, an initiative of the Global Reporting Initiative, is aimed at measuring the
carbon reduction activities undertaken by different companies and firms operating in various countries
across the globe.
The report surveys corporate commitments to science-based targets (SBT) and evaluates the climate
change risk that they are exposed to.
In the annual report, the United States of America secured the top spot followed by Japan, United
Kindom and France.
India secured the 5th spot on the project report.
COPYRIGHT Q.519 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Global Democracy Index is released by :
- A) World Social Forum
- B) Economist Intelligence Unit
- C) World Economic Forum
- D) World Justice Report
View Answer
Ans. B
EIU’s Global Democracy Index: India slips 10 spots to 51st rank, Norway tops the list
The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) releases an annual index of 167 independent countries, which
broadly shows the status of democracy in these countries.
COPYRIGHT Q.518 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Teaser Loans, consider the following statements :
- It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest
rate, which increases after a few years
- In India, Teaser loans are mostly given to the inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing
or exports unit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
Teaser Loans ;
It is an adjustable interest rate mortgage loan in which borrower pays a very low initial interest
rate, which increases after a few years
COPYRIGHT Q.517 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Monetary Transmission , consider the following statements :
- It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the
financial markets
- Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary
transmission
- Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Monetary Transmission :
– It refers to the process by which a central bank’s monetary policy decisions are passed on to the
financial markets
-Rising Non performing Assets & higher returns on small saving schemes may hinder effective monetary
transmission
-Lowering of CRR & SLR requirements may help ensure effective monetary transmission
MOCK Q.516 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial
Institutions Act,1993. With reference to the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) consider the following
statements :
- DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district &
session judge
- DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts
- Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks & Financial
Institutions Act,1993
-DRT is presided over by presiding officer who is generally a judge of the rank of district & session
judge
-DRT is fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like civil courts
-Tribunal can hear cross suits , counterclaims & allow set offs
MOCK Q.515 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following is not the function of the Asset Rehabilitation Agency that has been
recommended by the Economic Survey 2017 ?
- A) The agency will sell assets of loss making PSUs & will collect the payments due towards electricity
boards
- B) The agency take over the NPAs from the banks for a fixed cost , which is less than NPA amount
- C) The agency will issue security receipts for fixed interest rate & will raise the money
- D) NPA is transferred to the ARC along with any security pledged while taking loan
View Answer
Ans. A `
Asset reconstruction companies or Public Asset Rehabilitation Agencies acquire bad loans from any bank
or financial institution for the purpose of realization of such loans
HOW ARC WORKS ?
The agency take over the NPAs from the banks for a fixed cost , which is less than NPA amount
The agency will issue security receipts for fixed interest rate & will raise the money
NPA is transferred to the ARC along with any security pledged while taking loan
MOCK Q.514 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Insolvency & Bankruptcy code 2016, which among the following statement is not
correct ?
- A) The code will apply companies, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, Individuals & other
body specified by the government
- B) Insolvency resolution process could be initiated either by the debtor or creditor
- C) As per the code, debtor could be jailed for upto 3 years for concealing property or defrauding
creditors
- D) Resolution process will have to be completed within 180 days with an extension of upto 90 days if
75% of creditors agree
View Answer
Ans. C
Insolvency & Bankruptcy code 2016 :
-The code will apply companies, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, Individuals & other body
specified by the government
-Insolvency resolution process could be initiated either by the debtor or creditor
-As per the code, debtor could be jailed for upto 5 years for concealing property or defrauding
creditors
-Resolution process will have to be completed within 180 days with an extension of upto 90 days if
75% of creditors agree
MOCK Q.513 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Basel norms , consider the following statements :
- These are the broad supervisory substandards to ensure that the financial institutions have enough capital to meet unexpected losses
- At present banks are adhering to Basel III norms
- Basel III introduced tighter capital requirements in comparison to Basel I & II
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. A
RBI has mandated that Indian banks are required to adopt Basel III norms upto 31 March 2019(Earlier this date was 31 March 2018)
Basel III introduced tighter capital requirements
These are the broad supervisory substandards to ensure that the financial institutions have enough
capital to meet unexpected losses
MOCK Q.512 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which of the following statements best describes “Anchor Banks”?
- A) These are the public sector banks that will drive the consolidation process among the state owned
banks
- B) It is a body of eminent professionals that have been set up to insulate public sector banks from
interference by the government
- C) These are the separate institutes formed by the bank or group of banks or by the government itself
- D) These are the public sector banks that have been classified as Domestically Systemically Important
banks
View Answer
Ans. A
Anchor Banks : These are the public sector banks that will drive the consolidation process among the
state owned banks
Bank Board Bureau : It is a body of eminent professionals & consists of only one government official.
CAG has been appointed as head of the BBB.
It has been set up to insulate public sector banks from interference by the government
MOCK Q.511 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which one of the following best describes the term “BOOT” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is a PPP model in which a private entity is required to design, procure material & construct the
project
- B) It is a form of PPP in which a private entity builds a complete project & leases it to the
government
- C) It is a form of PPP in which a private entity builds the project , operates the project to recover
its costs & thereafter handovers the project to the government
- D) It is a form of PPP in which ownership of the project remains with the private company
View Answer
Ans. C
EPC (ENGINEERING –PROCUREMENT CONSTRUCTION ) :It is a PPP model in which a private entity is required
to design, procure material & construct the project
BLT (BUILD LEASE TRANSFER) : It is a form of PPP in which a private entity builds a complete project &
leases it to the government
BOOT ( BUILD OWN OPERATE TRANFER) : It is a form of PPP in which a private entity builds the project ,
operates the project to recover its costs & thereafter handovers the project to the government
BOO (BUILD OWN OPERATE ) : It is a form of PPP in which ownership of the project remains with the
private company
MOCK Q.510 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Consider the following statements :
- Anthracite has high carbon content & low ash content , thus causes less pollution
- India has sufficient reserves of Lignite & Anthracite coal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. A
**India imports Anthracite coal mainly from Australia to meet its requirements
**Indian coal reserves are mostly Lignite & Bituminous
**Lignite has high moisture content , so it breaks easily
**Bituminous coal has high calorific value & used as a coking coal
MOCK Q.509 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Of the following what is the difference between Greenfield & Brownfield project ?
- A) In Greenfield , a new facility offers maximum design flexibility & efficiency to meet the project
needs while in Brownfield , building is already constructed
- B) A Greenfield project is usually started at a less cost than a brownfield project
- C) A Greenfield project requires fewer approvals than a brownfield project
- D) In Greenfield , building is already constructed while in Brownfield , a new facility offers maximum design flexibility & efficiency to meet the project needs
View Answer
Ans. A
In Greenfield , a new facility offers maximum design flexibility & efficiency to meet the project needs.
New facilities are typically less costly
In Brownfield , building is already constructed. Time devoted to construction can be avoided as well
MOCK Q.508 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Global Liveability Index report is published by :
- A) Global Infrastructure Hub
- B) Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)
- C) Joint Research Centre of European Commission
- D) Cornell University
View Answer
Ans. B
EIU releases Global Liveability Index
MOCK Q.507 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the International Nitrogen Initiative , consider the following statements :
- It was set up in 2005 under sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment
(SCOPE) and from the International Geosphere-Biosphere Program (IGBP)
- INI holds a conference once in every three years, inviting members of the international nitrogen
community to meet up and discuss ideas and exchange knowledge on nitrogen issues.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. B
The International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) is an international program, set up in 2003 under
sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and from the
International Geosphere-Biosphere Program (IGBP).
Role of new Chairs of INI
- The other INI projects under their purview include the “N-print” activity on nitrogen
foot-printing and cooperation with the Global Carbon Project on establishment of a global nitrous
oxide budget.
- The INI holds a conference once in every three years, inviting members of the international nitrogen
community to meet up and discuss ideas and exchange knowledge on nitrogen issues.
MOCK Q.506 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- NITI Aayog released Thematic Reports on Sustainable Development in Indian Himalayan Region. Which
among the following thematic area is not covered in the Thematic reports ?
- A) Transformative Approach to Shifting Cultivation
- B) Purchasing Power Parity of Population
- C) Sustainable Tourism in Indian Himalayan Region
- D) Data/Information for Informed Decision Making
View Answer
Ans. B
The NITI Aayog on August 23, 2018 released the five Thematic Reports on Sustainable Development in e
Indian Himalayan Region (IHR), listing the challenges in all the defined 5 thematic areas.
The reports discuss the significance, the challenges, the ongoing actions and a future roadmap.
Earlier in June 2017, the NITI Aayog had set up 5 Working Groups to prepare a roadmap for actions in
5 thematic areas that are quite significant for the Himalayas. These areas were:
- Inventory and Revival of Springs in Himalayas for Water Security
- Sustainable Tourism in Indian Himalayan Region
- Transformative Approach to Shifting Cultivation
- Strengthening Skill & Entrepreneurship Landscape in Himalayas
- Data/Information for Informed Decision Making
MOCK Q.505 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- European Space Agency launches world’s first wind-sensing satellite Aeolus. With reference to the
satellite, consider the following statements :
- It is part of the Copernicus project, a joint initiative of European Union (EU) and European Space
Agency (ESA) to track environmental damage and aid disaster relief operations
- It will be placed at altitude of 320km above the Earth
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
View Answer
Ans. C
European Space Agency launches world’s first wind-sensing satellite Aeolus
- European Space Agency (ESA) successfully launched wind-sensing satellite named ‘Aeolus’ into orbit
on board of Vega rocket from French Guyana.
- It is world’s first wind-sensing satellite dedicated to map Earth’s wind on global scale
.• It will be placed at altitude of 320km above the Earth.
- It is part of the Copernicus project, a joint initiative of European Union (EU) and European Space
Agency (ESA) to track environmental damage and aid disaster relief operations.
MOCK Q.504 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Union Cabinet approves Earth Sciences Ministry’s umbrella scheme ‘O-SMART’. What benefit(s) will
be provided by implementation of this scheme ?
- A) It will help address issues related to Sustainable Development Goal-14, which emphasises on the
conservation of the oceans and marine resources
- B) It will provide scientific information on the status of species at a global level
C)It will help address issues related to Sustainable Development Goal-11, which emphasises on the
conservation of the oceans and marine resources
- D) It is a central sponsored scheme focuses on improving the management of water & land resources,
enhancing food security & reducing poverty
View Answer
Ans. A
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved implementation of an umbrella scheme ‘Ocean
Services, Technology, Observations, Resources Modelling and Science (O-SMART)’.
The scheme will cover a total of 16 sub-projects, which will address ocean development activities such
as services, technology, resources, observations and science.
Significance
The services provided under the O-SMART scheme will provide a number of economic benefits to the user
communities in the coastal areas
Benefits
- The implementation of the scheme will help address issues related to Sustainable Development Goal-14, which emphasises on the conservation of the oceans and marine resources.
-India has also signed the Antarctic Treaty System and joined the Commission of Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) for harnessing the resources.
MOCK Q.503 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following products are offered by the Indian Post Payment Banks ?
- Direct Benefit Transfers
- Saving & Current Accounts
- Utility payments
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
View Answer
Ans. D
- The payments bank, where the Indian government holds 100 per cent equity,
- The IPPBs will offer a range of products such as savings and current accounts, money transfer,
direct benefit transfers, bill and utility payments, and enterprise and merchant payments.
On August 29, 2018, the Union Cabinet had approved 80 per cent increase in spending for IPPB from
Rs 800 crore to Rs 1435 crore.
MOCK Q.502 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the news, “CLASS” is associated with which of the following?
- A) An instrument on Chandrayaan-2 is designed to detect direct signatures of elements present in the
lunar soil
- B) It is a payload imaging sensor built by Santa Barbara Remote Sensing that was launched into Earth
orbit by NASA in 1999 on board the Terra satellite, and in 2002 on board the Aqua satellite
- C) It is CIXS instrument, also referred to as Chandrayaan-1 X-ray Spectrometer, to carry out high
quality X-ray spectroscopic mapping of the moon.
- D) None of the above
View Answer
Ans. A
The CLASS instrument on Chandrayaan-2 is designed to detect direct signatures of elements present in
the lunar soil.
ISRO said in a statement released on its official website that CLASS is able to detect direct
signatures of elements present in the lunar soil. It was also found by the CLASS that best observation
occurred when the Sun provides a rich source of x-rays to illuminate the lunar surface. The payload
can also detect secondary x-ray emissions resulted from the lunar surface to find out elements like
Na, Ca, Al, Si, Ti and Fe.
About X-ray Monitor
X-ray Monitor or XSM detects the X-rays emitted by the Sun and its corona. It calculates the strength
of solar radiation in these rays and assists CLASS. Major objective of XSM is to provide solar X-ray
spectrum in the energy range of 1-15 KV. This payload will give high-energy resolution and high-cadence
measurements of solar X-ray spectra as input for analysis of data from CLASS.
MOCK Q.501 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With which among the following part of India, Aarey Forest Controversy is associated ?
- A) Aarey colony of Maharashtra
- B) Western Ghats of Kerala
- C) Aarey forests of Andhra Pradesh
- D) Temperate forests found between an altitude of 1,000 and 2,000 m
View Answer
Ans. A
Aarey protest: The Supreme Court hit out at the Maharashtra state government saying that no more trees
should be cut in Aarey colony
MOCK Q.500 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which of the following statements best describes ICON Mission launched by NASA ?
- A) It is to study heat and energy move through the sun’s corona and explore what accelerates the
solar winds that affect Earth and other planets
- B) An innovative and sustainable program of exploration with commercial and international partners to
enable human expansion across the solar system and to bring back to Earth new knowledge and
opportunities.
- C) Mission is to explore Mars and to provide a continuous flow of scientific information and discovery
through a carefully selected series of robotic orbiters, landers and mobile laboratories interconnected
by a high-bandwidth Mars/Earth communications network
- D) It was launched from an aircraft over the Atlantic Ocean near the Florida coast
to study the Earth’s Ionosphere which will be able to understand the link between space and the earth’s
weather with this study
View Answer
Ans. D
NASA’s ICON satellite was launched from an aircraft over the Atlantic Ocean near the Florida coast.
About ICON Mission
- The ICON satellite will study the Earth’s Ionosphere. It includes various layers of the uppermost
atmosphere where free electrons flow freely. It affects Earth’s magnetic field and radio communications.
- The scientists will be able to understand the link between space and the earth’s weather with this
study.
- The ICON mission is the 39th successful launch and satellite deployment by Pegasus rocket.
- This mission is operated by the University of California. It was originally planned to launch in
late 2017 but delayed due to the problems with the Pegasus XL rocket.
- Ionosphere Connection Explorer (ICON) is equipped with 780-watt solar arrays to power the instruments.
- ICON has designed as a two year’s mission but if all goes well according to the plan, it will last
for more than a decade.
MOCK Q.499 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan OR SUMAN Scheme, consider the following statements :
- It aims to provide institutional delivery at every private & public health care facilities
- Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn care visits
- The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan
- The Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan initiative or SUMAN scheme aims to provide dignified and quality
health care at no cost to every woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.
- Under the scheme, all pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able
to avail several free health care services such as four antenatal check-ups and six home-based newborn
care visits.
- The scheme will enable zero expense access to the identification and management of complications
during and after the pregnancy. The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from
home to the health facility and drop back after discharge (minimum 48 hrs).
- The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of
complications at public health facilities.
- The scheme will ensure that there is zero-tolerance for denial of services to such patients.
MOCK Q.498 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- ‘Ex-Eastern Bridge-V’ joint exercise begins between which among the following nations ?
- A) India & USA
- B) USA & Vietnam
- C) India & Oman
- D) USA & Oman
Ans. C
IAF and Royal Air Force of Oman begins Joint Exercise ‘Ex-Eastern Bridge-V’
Indian Air Force and Royal Air Force of Oman will also promote the exchange of experience during
Ex-Eastern Bridge-V.
MOCK Q.497 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the India Energy Forum, consider the following statements :
- It was established in 2011 with an objective to understand India’s Nuclear Energy Program
- All the public and private nuclear organizations, oil and gas organizations, Renewable energy organizations are members of India Energy Forum
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
What is India Energy Forum?
It was established in 2001 with an objective to understand India’s Nuclear Energy Program. Now, it has
a special status of the spokesman of India’s total energy sector.
Several public and private nuclear organizations, oil and gas organizations, Renewable energy
organizations are members of India Energy Forum. Some of them are – NHPC, NTPC, Power Grid Corporation,
ONGC, Power Finance Corporation among others.
MOCK Q.496 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Chile cancels hosting COP-25 and APEC due to nationwide unrest. With reference to the following,
What is Chile Unrest ?
- A) It is a nationwide protest against the increase in carbon dioxide emission from the industrial &
thermal plants affecting the climate
- B) It is a nationwide protest against authorities in maintaining public safety and order
- C) It is a nationwide protest against 30 per cent increase in Metro fares
- D) It is a nationwide protest caused by a 50%–200% increase in fuel prices, calling for the overthrow
of the government in Chile
Ans. C
Chile cancels hosting COP-25 and APEC due to nationwide unrest
Chile announced a 30 per cent increase in Metro fares in October 2019 which triggered the anger of people and they started protesting against the government.
What is Chile unrest?
The government of Chile announced a 30 per cent increase in Metro fares in October 2019. The county
was already going through issues of inflation which triggered the anger of people and they started
protesting against the government on October 17, 2019.
What is COP 25 issue?
United Nations Climate Change Conference 2019 (COP25) was planned to be held in Santiago, Chile. It
was planned that Chile will host the global Summit between 2 to 13 December 2019 but it was cancelled
on 30 October due to Chilean unrest.
COP 25 was originally planned to be held in Brazil but newly elected President Jair Bolsonaro announced
that due to economic reasons Brazil is not able to host the summit and withdrawal of an offer to host
the program.
MOCK Q.495 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following statement is/are correct in context with the APEC ?
- The group was established in 1989 to boost Asia-Pacific economies and get trade benefits from other
parts of the world
- It was the first time decided in 2006 Summit held in Hanoi that Free Trade Area of the Asia-Pacific
(FTAAP) should be established
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
What is APEC?
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation is also known as APEC. It is an inter-governmental platform for
21 Pacific Rim member economies to promote free-trade in the Asia-Pacific region. The group was
established in 1989 to boost Asia-Pacific economies and get trade benefits from other parts of the
world. It was the first time decided in 2006 Summit held in Hanoi that Free Trade Area of the Asia-
Pacific (FTAAP) should be established.
MOCK Q.494 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- In context with the CIRDAP , a regional Inter – Governmental and autonomous institution which among
the following statements are correct ?
- Originally the institution had six members but now the number has gone up to 25
- It was jointly established on 6 July 1979 by the countries of the Asia-Pacific region and UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) in coordination with several other UN bodies and donors.
- India is one of the key founding members of this Organisation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
About CIRDAP
- It is a regional Inter – Governmental and autonomous institution.
- It was jointly established on 6 July 1979 by the countries of the Asia-Pacific region and UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) in coordination with several other UN bodies and donors.
- India is one of the key founding members of this Organisation.
- The headquarters of the institution is located at Dhaka in Bangladesh.
- The main objective of the body is to promote regional cooperation and act as a serving institution
for its member countries for promotion of integrated rural development through research action,
training and information dissemination,
- There are 46 countries in Asia Pacific Region, therefore CIRDAP has great potential for expansion
for which they would be assisted by CIRDAP Centres.
- Originally the institution had six members but now the number has gone up to 15.
The member countries include India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Malaysia, Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Fiji, Indonesia, Iran, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Philippines, Thailand and Vietnam.
MOCK Q.493 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Who among the following serves as the Secretariat for the SASEC member countries ?
- A) Asian Development Bank
- B) World Bank
- C) ASEAN Regional Forum
- D) World Bank Group
Ans. A
About South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation
- The SASEC brings together seven countries in a project-based partnership to promote regional
prosperity by improving cross-border connectivity, boosting trade among member countries, and
strengthening regional economic cooperation.
- The SASEC countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
- The Program was set up in 2001.
- The Asian Development Bank (ADB) serves as the Secretariat for the SASEC member countries.
MOCK Q.492 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Recently our scientists have discovered Tree-living crab species, that includes the structure of
its hard upper shell, its male abdominal structure and reproductive parts and diagnostic elongated
walking legs, which no other genus has. In which part of India has it been discovered?
- A) Anaimalai Forests
- B) Western Ghats of Kerala
- C) Andaman Islands
- D) Tropical Rain Forests of North east
Ans. B
Tree-living crab species, Kani maranjandu, found in Kerala
The key traits of the crab include the structure of its hard upper shell, its male abdominal structure
and reproductive parts and diagnostic elongated walking legs, which no other genus has.
A group of scientists discovered a new species of long legged, tree-dwelling crabs in Western Ghats of
Kerala.
The species are named after the Kani tribe in Kerala.
- The survey of the freshwater crab fauna had started in the year 2014 in the Westerns Ghats in Kerala.
About Kani tribe
- Kani is a tribe living in the Western Ghats area of Kerala.
MOCK Q.491 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- “Death Penalty Report” is released by which organization ?
- A) Amnesty International
- B) Greenpeace
- C) World Social Forum
- D) Doctors Without Borders
Ans. A
Amnesty International released Death Penalty Report 2016
As per the report, at least 60 people who had been sentenced to death were exonerated in 9 countries
in 2016
MOCK Q.490 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- “Globalization Backlash” is released by which organization ?
- A) World Bank
- B) World Tourism Organisation
- C) World Bank Group
- D) International Fund for Agricultural Development
Ans. A
World Bank released report Globalization Backlash
South Asia’s performance will maintain momentum, with the gap between its growth rate and that of East
Asia slightly widening over time.
Highlights of Globalization Backlash
- With a strong performance in the eastern part of the South Asia Region – in particular in Bhutan,
Bangladesh and India – the region defied disappointing world growth in 2016.
- Inflation slowed down in the second half of 2016, mainly due to lower food prices, but appears to
be turning up again.
- Despite recent real exchange rate appreciation, current account balances are mostly in order
throughout the region.
MOCK Q.489 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- In context with the Agni-III which among the following statements is/are correct ?
- This Surface-to-Surface nuclear capable intermediate-range ballistic missile can hit targets in the range of around 2500 km
- It can carry a warhead of 1.5 tonne which is protected by carbon all composite heat shield
- The missile was inducted into the armed forces in June 2016
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Highlights of the Agni-III ballistic missile
- This Surface-to-Surface nuclear capable intermediate-range ballistic missile can hit targets in the
range of around 3000 km.
- The two-stage solid-propelled missile has a length of 17 metres, 2 metres diameter and its launch
weight is around 50 tonnes.
- It can carry a warhead of 1.5 tonne which is protected by carbon all composite heat shield.
- The missile was inducted into the armed forces in June 2011.
MOCK Q.488 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which one of the following best describes the term ” Microlensing ” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is a technique that aids the discovery of distant objects by using background stars as flashlights
- B) It is a technique to correct refractive errors of the eye by permanently changing the shape of the
cornea
- C) It is a technique of reducing the person’s dependence on glasses by preparing the contact lenses
- D) None of the above
Ans. A
What is Microlensing?
- It is a technique that aids the discovery of distant objects by using background stars as flashlights.
- When a star crosses from the front of a bright star, the gravity of the star in the front focuses
the light of the background star, making it appear brighter.
- So, a planet orbiting the foreground star may cause a glitch in its brightness.
MOCK Q.487 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Recently, India has become the member of which of the following UN subsidiary bodies for the period of three years ?
- Committee for Programme and Coordination (CPC)
- Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE)
- International Narcotics Control Board
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
India, along with 12 other members, was elected for the period of three years to the Committee for
Programme and Coordination (CPC), a subsidiary body of the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
These two organisations are Committee for Programme and Coordination (CPC) and International Narcotics
Control Board.
India’s Election to Committee for Programme and Coordination (CPC)
- India, along with 12 other members, was elected for the period of three years to the Committee for
Programme and Coordination (CPC), a subsidiary body of the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- It garnered the most number of votes in the Asian group, with 49 out of 50 members of ECOSOC voting
in its favour.
- The other 12 members elected for three-year terms include Burkina Faso, Iran, Japan, Pakistan,
Belarus, Bulgaria, Moldova, Brazil, Chile, Cuba, the United Kingdom and United States.
- The CPC is the main subsidiary organ of the Economic and Social Council and the General Assembly for
planning, programming and coordination.
MOCK Q.486 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- IAEA International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) to transfer Sterile Insect Technique to numerous
countries to combat which among the following virus disease ?
- A) Zika
- B) Small pox
- C) Ebolla
- D) Common cold and different types of flu
Ans. A
IAEA International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) to transfer Sterile Insect Technique under 2.3 Million
Euro Project to Combat Zika
Since 1997, SIT has been transferred to numerous countries to combat pests that affect food and crops,
and insects that transmit diseases, including mosquitoes.
About Sterile Insect Technique (SIT)
Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) is a form of pest control that uses ionizing radiation to sterilize
male insects mass-produced in special rearing facilities.
Since 1997, SIT has been transferred to numerous countries by the Joint FAO/IAEA Division of Nuclear
Techniques in Food and Agriculture.
MOCK Q.485 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund ?
- It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies
including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund
- The fund was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2015 to fund new and rejuvenate stressed projects
so that stalled investment cycle is revived in the country.
- It was established as a Category II Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) as per the regulations of the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
- It has an initial corpus of 20000 crore rupees which can be leveraged by infrastructure companies
including Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank (NHB).
- On the basis of the above early warning signals, the branch maintaining the account should consider
forwarding the stressed accounts with aggregate loan limits above 10 lakh rupees to the Committee for
Stressed MSMEs within five working days for a suitable corrective action plan (CAP).
- As regards accounts with aggregate loan limits up to 10 lakh rupees identified as SMA-2, the account
should be mandatorily examined for CAP by the branch itself under the authority of the branch manager
/designated official as decided by the bank.
- The option under CAP may include Rectification, Restructuring and Recovery among others.
MOCK Q.484 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Apart from the rotavirus vaccine, which among the following new vaccine has been introduced as part
of UIP (Universal Immunization Programme) ?
- A) Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)
- B) Hepatitis A Vaccine
- C) Chicken Pox Vaccine
- D) Hepatitis B Vaccine
Ans. A
SNIPPET FROM THE NEWS :
Health Minister JP Nadda launched Rotavirus vaccine as part of Universal Immunization Programme
The vaccine is being introduced initially in four states, which are Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Himachal
Pradesh and Odisha and will be expanded to the entire country in a phased manner.
Apart from the rotavirus vaccine, three new vaccines are also being introduced as part of UIP
including Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV), Measles, Rubella (MR) vaccine and Adult Japanese
Encephalitis (JE) vaccine.
About Universal Immunization Programme
- Universal Immunization Programme is a vaccination program launched by the Government of India in 1985.
- It became a part of Child Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme in 1992 and is currently one of the
key areas under National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) since 2005.
MOCK Q.483 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following Protected Area Network is associated with the Madrid Action Plan ?
- A) Biosphere Reserves
- B) Conservation Reserves
- C) Biodiversity Hotspots
- D) Community reserves
Ans. A
Madrid Action Plan for Biosphere Reserves
MOCK Q.482 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Worldwide Cost of Living survey is released by which of the following organization ?
- A) Organisation for Economic Cooperation & Development
- B) World Economic Forum
- C) Economist Intelligence Unit
- D) UN Human Rights Council
Ans. C
Economist Intelligence Unit released Worldwide Cost of Living Report 2016
EIU ranked Singapore as the priciest city, while were Lusaka, the capital of Zambia was named as the
cheapest city of the world.
Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released Worldwide Cost of Living Report 2016 on 10 March 2016.
According to the report, Mumbai and Bangalore are among the cheapest cities in the world.
EIU ranked Singapore as the priciest city ahead of Zurich, Hong Kong, Geneva and Paris.
The Economist Intelligence Unit helps business leaders prepare for opportunity, empowering them to act
with confidence when making strategic decisions.
The Worldwide Cost of Living survey is released twice a year by the EIU. It compares more than 400
individual prices across 160 products and services in 131 cities, including food, drink, clothing,
household supplies and personal care items, home rents, transport, utility bills, private schools,
domestic help and recreational costs.
MOCK Q.481 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following destinations spread across the states under the Krishna Circuit ?
- Nathdwar
- Puri
- Bhadrachalam
4.. Sikar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1 & 3
- B) 1,2,4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. B
Destinations under Krishna Circuit
Under Krishna circuit, 12 destinations spread across 5 states are proposed. These are:
- Dwarka (Gujarat)
- Nathdwara, Jaipur & Sikar (Rajasthan)
- Kurukshetra (Haryana)
- Mathura, Vrindavan, Gokul, Barsana, Nandgaon & Govardhan (Uttar Pradesh)
- Puri (Odisha)
Besides, projects worth more than 300 crores rupees were approved in-principle in Uttar Pradesh under both the circuits.
Under Ramayana Circuit, 11 destinations spread across 6 states are proposed. These are:
- Ayodhya, Nandigram, Shringhverpur & Chitrakoot (Uttar Pradesh)
- Sitamarhi, Buxar & Darbhanga (Bihar)
- Jagdalpur (Chattisgarh)
- Bhadrachalam (Telangana)
- Hampi (Karnataka)
- Rameshwaram (Tamil Nadu)
Expert committee also suggested including Chitrakoot (Madhya Pradesh), Nashik & Nagpur (Maharashtra) and Mahendragiri (Odisha) in the proposed circuit.
MOCK Q.480 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following is/are the long term FPIs (Foreign Portfolio Investors) ?
- A) Sovereign Wealth Funds Only
- B) Pension Funds Only
- C) Sovereign Wealth Funds, Endowment Funds, Insurance Funds, Pension Funds
- D) Sovereign Wealth Funds, Insurance Funds, Pension Funds
Ans. C
Markets regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 29 March 2016 decided to
increase the Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) investment limit in Central Government securities.
This will boost inflows of foreign funds into Indian capital markets.
The limit for long term FPIs (Sovereign Wealth Funds, Multilateral Agencies, Endowment Funds,
Insurance Funds, Pension Funds and Foreign Central Banks)
in the Central Government securities will be enhanced to 50000 crore rupees from 4 April 2016 and
56000 crore rupees on 5 July 2016. Currently, the existing limit is 44100 crore rupees for long term
FPIs.
MOCK Q.479 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which one of the following best describes the term “Fertile Crescent” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is the Rajasthan’s state fertile soil that provides food & firewood to support rural economy
- B) It is the confluence of different biogeographical zones that is very rich in species diversity
- C) It is a tree species found in a part of south India that can serve as a safety hedge against coastal calamities
- D) It is an ancient area of fertile soil & vital rivers in the middle east
Ans. D
Fertile Crescent” : It is an ancient area of fertile soil & vital rivers in the middle east
-Initiative of UN’s Food & Agriculture Organisation & University of Birmingham’s school of Biosciences
MOCK Q.478 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Angel Fund ?
- It has been launched very recently under which the first generation entrepreneurs can get a maximum
loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa
- The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 9 months during which no interest rates will be
charged
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It has been launched in 2013 by Assam Chief Minister, under which the first generation entrepreneurs
can get a maximum loan of 5 lakh rupees at 5% interest pa
The loan will have a moratorium period of maximum 10 months during which no interest rates will be
charged
MOCK Q.477 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Equity Index, consider the following statements :
- It was launched in collaboration with the world bank which will help raise funds for products
seeking to mitigate climate change
- It is the first equity Index linked with the Green Bond
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Equity Index :
BNP PAIBAS on 18 sep 2014launched this index.
It was launched in collaboration with the world bank which will help raise funds for products seeking
to mitigate climate change
It is the first equity Index linked with the Green Bond
MOCK Q.476 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Maharaja Bonds to develop the infrastructure for the domestic capital markets, has been issued by
which of the following organization ?
- A) World Bank
- B) Asian Development Bank
- C) World Bank Group
- D) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Ans. A
Maharaja Bonds to develop the infrastructure for the domestic capital markets, has been issued by
World Bank
MOCK Q.475 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the Minsk agreement, consider the following statements :
- This agreement was based on 11 point peace plan that included the release of hostages
- The agreement was brokered by the WTO (World Trade Organisation)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
This agreement was based on 12 point peace plan that included the release of hostages
The agreement was brokered by the Organisation for security & cooperation in Europe (OSCE)
Ukraine & pro-Russian rebels agreed on ceasefire agreement called Minsk agreement
MOCK Q.474 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- A report titled scientific assessment of Ozone depletion revealed that the ozone layer is well on
track to recovery in the next few decades. The report has been prepared by which of the following
organizations ?
- A) UNEP & WMO
- B) Green Climate Fund
- C) UNDP & UNEP
- D) Global environment Facility
Ans. A
A report titled scientific assessment of Ozone depletion revealed that the ozone layer is well on
track to recovery in the next few decades. The report has been prepared by UNEP (United Nation
Environment Programme) & WMO (World Meteorological Organisation)
MOCK Q.473 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which of the following given Inclusive Development Index ranking to the countries of the world ?
- A) World Economic Forum
- B) World Health Organisation
- C) UN Human Rights Council
- D) UNDP
Ans. A
The Inclusive Development Index (IDI) is an annual economic index introduced by the World Economic
Forum System Initiative on Shaping the Future of Economic Progress in 2017. The IDI ranks countries’
economic performance in three pillars: growth and development, inclusion, and intergenerational equity
and sustainability. The IDI is a project of the World Economic Forum’s System Initiative on the Future
of Economic Progress, which aims to inform and enable sustained and inclusive economic progress
through deepened public-private cooperation through thought leadership and analysis, strategic
dialogue and concrete cooperation, including by accelerating social impact through corporate action.
MOCK Q.472 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- In order to join Euro currency, a country must fulfill which of the following conditions ?
- Government debt no higher than 70pc of GDP
- Budget deficit below 3pc of GDP
- Low Inflation & Interest rates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Government debt no higher than 60pc of GDP
Budget deficit below 3pc of GDP
Low Inflation & Interest rates
MOCK Q.471 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Who among the following has released a report titled “ Environmental Crime Crisis ?
- A) Bombay Natural History Society
- B) World Wildlife Fund
- C) Birdlife International
- D) UNEP (United nation Environment Programme)
Ans. D
UNEP (United nation Environment Programme) has released a report titled “ Environmental Crime Crisis
MOCK Q.470 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Who among the following has published a report titled “Mysterious Mekong” mentioning the discoveries
of new exotic species in Greater Mekong Region ?
- A) Bombay Natural History Society
- B) World Wildlife Fund
- C) Birdlife International
- D) UNEP (United nation Environment Programme)
Ans. B
World Wildlife Fund has published a report titled “Mysterious Mekong” mentioning the discoveries
of new exotic species in Greater Mekong Region
MOCK Q.469 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to ATOMEXPO, an International Forum for nuclear power industry, consider the
following statements :
- It is an initiative of Russia’s state Nuclear Energy Corporation
- First ATOMEXPO was held in 2009 to define the place & role of nuclear generation in 21st century
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Atomexpo is a major communication company providing the whole spectrum of services in field of
congress-exhibition management, event-industry and business presentations worldwide.
Atomexpo LLC is in the market of communication services since 2009. The company is arranging the
business events conducted by State Corporation Rosatom and the companies of the nuclear sector of the
Russian industry, as well as by the bodies of the RF executive authorities and international companies.
The company portfolio contains over 500 successfully led projects both in Russia and abroad.
MOCK Q.468 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- With reference to the GSAT 7, consider the following statements :
- Payload of the GSAT 7 is designed to provide communication capabilities to users in distant coastal
regions
- Its solar arrays generate 2100 W of electric power
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
GSAT 7:
-Payload of the GSAT 7 is designed to provide communication capabilities to users in distant oceanic
regions
– Its solar arrays generate 2900 W of electric power
MOCK Q.467 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following factor(s) is/are considered for cataloging the specimens in the bio Banks ?
- Blood type
- Cornea of the eyes
- Hair cells of the human beings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1
Ans. D
A biobank is a type of biorepository that stores biological samples (usually human) for use in
research. Since the late 1990s biobanks have become an important resource in medical research,
supporting many types of contemporary research like genomics and personalized medicine.
Biobanks give researchers access to data representing a large number of people. Samples in biobanks
and the data derived from those samples can often be used by multiple researchers for cross purpose
research studies. For example, many diseases are associated with single-nucleotide polymorphisms, and
performing genome-wide association studies using large collections of samples which represent tens or
hundreds of thousands of individuals can help to identify disease biomarkers. Many researchers
struggled to acquire sufficient samples prior to the advent of biobanks.
Biobanks have provoked questions on privacy, research ethics and medical ethics. While viewpoints
on what constitutes appropriate biobank ethics diverge, consensus has been reached that operating
biobanks without establishing carefully considered governing principles and policies could be
detrimental to communities that participate in biobank programs.
Virtual biobanks integrate epidemiological cohorts into a common pool.Virtual biobanks allow for
sample collection to meet national regulations.
Tissue banks harvest and store human tissues for transplantation and research. As biobanks become more
established, it is expected that tissue banks will merge with biobanks.
Population banks store biomaterial as well as associated characteristics such as lifestyle, clinical,
and environmental data
MOCK Q.466 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.Which among the following is/are the applications of the Deep UV Laser device ?
- Deep UV light can be used to sterilize bacteria & Viruses, decontaminate drinking water & in
fluorescence sensors to detect chemicals
- Significant improvement in the ability to inspect microchips with solid state metrology
- Improved detection of airborne chemical & biological agents
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
All of the above are the applications of the Deep UV Laser device
MOCK Q.465 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Which one of the following best describes the term “Peace Arc” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is an international treaty to change the functioning of the European Union which must be
ratified by atleast 3/4th member states of the European Union
- B) It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase the maritime cooperation amongst navies of the
littoral states of the Indian Ocean region
- C) It is the Chinese navy hospital ship to provide free medical services to people of Bangladesh
- D) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty amongst the members of the East Asia Summit
Ans. C
The ship was launched in 2007 with the stated intention of giving China a platform to provide a better
means to providing quicker humanitarian response to disasters around the world, but others contend it
also allows China to extend the navy’s blue water capabilities.
On 1 September 2010, the hospital ship embarked on a three-month “Harmonious Mission 2010” to the Gulf
of Aden with a total of 428 officers including 100 medical workers. En route she visited and provided
medical treatment to the local people of Djibouti, Tanzania, Kenya, the Seychelles and Bangladesh.
During “Harmonious Mission 2011”, Peace Ark visited Cuba, Costa Rica, Jamaica, and Trinidad and Tobago,
the first Chinese voyage to the Caribbean
MOCK Q.464 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which one of the following best describes the term “SEEDS PROJECT ” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment & Forests to conserve nature
through action based research, education & public awareness
- B) It is a Tree Campaign launched by UNEP of planting 1 billion trees in 2007
- C) It is a non-profit research research organization that focuses on management of water & land
resources, enhancing food security & reducing poverty
- D) It is a project which directly captures the images of extra solar planets & protoplanetary disks
around thousands of nearby stars
Ans. D
The SEEDS Project
- This discovery is the part of Strategic Explorations of Exoplanets and Disks with Subaru (SEEDS) project. It is a project which directly captures the images of extrasolar planets and protoplanetary disks around thousands of nearby stars, by making use of Subaru Telescope on Mauna Kea, Hawaii.
- SEEDS is a 5-year project which started off in the year 2009.
- SEEDS is led by Motohide Tamura at the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan (NAOJ).
- Imaging done under this project provides an insight into the orbit, atmosphere, temperature and
luminosity of the planet. However, the planets are very faint and extremely close to their host stars,
which is why it is extremely difficult to capture them.
- The SEEDS project captures the images at near-infrared wavelengths by making use of the novel
adaptive optics system of telescope and two instruments: the High Contrast Instrument for the Subaru
Next Generation Adaptive Optics and the InfraRed Camera and Spectrograph. The combination of these
enables the team to capture the direct images towards fainter planets.
MOCK Q.463 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- H7N9 virus is sometimes mentioned in news with reference to which of the following disease ?
- A) Bird flu
- B) Dengue
- C) Swine Flu
- D) AIDS
Ans. A
H7N9 virus is referred with Bird flu
MOCK Q.462 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Which among the following areas have been focused under the Greenpeace campaigns ?
- Oceans
- Forests
- Nuclear reactors
- Genetically modified foods
- Vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,4,5
- B) Only 1,2 & 4
- C) 1,2,3,4
- D) All are correct
Ans. C
Vegetarianism has not been focused under the Greenpeace campaigns
The following areas have been focused under the Greenpeace campaigns ?
- Oceans
- Forests
- Nuclear reactors
- Genetically modified foods
MOCK Q.461 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Consider the following statements :
- Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization focused on human rights
- Amnesty International operates in India with headquarters in Bangalore
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization focused on human rights
Amnesty International operates in India with headquarters in Bangalore
MOCK Q.460 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Consider the following statements about International Committee of Red Cross :
- ICRC was established in 19th century in Geneva,Switzerland
- International Committee of the red cross was awarded the nobel prize in 1917, 1944, 1963 – on the third occasion jointly with the League of Red Cross societies
- Red cross society was found to protect the human life & health from the war hostilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
All are correct. Just memorize it.
MOCK Q.459 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Consider the following statements:
- Human Development Index for any nation is calculated as geometric mean of life expectancy Index, Education Index & Income Index
- Life expectancy index in HDI is calculated using a minimum value of 20 years & a minimum value of 85 years
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Human Development Index for any nation is calculated as geometric mean of life expectancy Index,
Education Index & Income Index
Life expectancy index in HDI is calculated using a minimum value of 20 years & a minimum value of
85 years
MOCK Q.458 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
- Who among the following releases World Press Freedom Index ?
- A) Institute for Economics and Peace
- B) Oxfam International
- C) Reporters Without Borders
- D) World Economic Forum
Ans. C
The 2019 World Press Freedom Index compiled by Reporters Without Borders (RSF) shows how hatred of
journalists has degenerated into violence, contributing to an increase in fear. The number of
countries regarded as safe, where journalists can work in complete security, continues to decline,
while authoritarian regimes continue to tighten their grip on the media.
MOCK Q.457
Q.Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?
- A) Nerium
- B) Neem
- C) Bourgainvillea
- D) Callotropis
Ans. C
The vine species grow anywhere from 1 to 12 m (3 to 40 ft.) tall, scrambling over other plants with
their spiky thorns. They are evergreen where rainfall occurs all year, or deciduous if there is a dry
season.
Bougainvillea are popular ornamental plants in most areas with warm climates, such as Florida and
South Carolina[5], and across The Mediterranean Basin.
MOCK Q.456
- Which of the following statements correctly denotes Bio-fortification ?
- A) Enrichment of the nutrient quality of the soil using biological agents
- B) Breeding crops to increase their nutritional values
- C) Inrcrease of organo-metallic compounds in the organism through energy flow in an ecosystem
- D) Adoption of genetic variable plants for breeding of high yielding plants
Ans. B
Biofortification is the idea of breeding crops to increase their nutritional value. This can be done
either through conventional selective breeding, or through genetic engineering. Biofortification
differs from ordinary fortification because it focuses on making plant foods more nutritious as the
plants are growing, rather than having nutrients added to the foods when they are being processed.
This is an important improvement on ordinary fortification when it comes to providing nutrients for
the rural poor, who rarely have access to commercially fortified foods.[2] As such, biofortification
is seen as an upcoming strategy for dealing with deficiencies of micronutrients in low and middle-
income countries. In the case of iron, WHO estimated that biofortification could help curing the 2
billion people suffering from iron deficiency-induced anemia.
MOCK Q.455
Q.4 What is a major use of Allethrin ?
- A) In household insecticides
- B) In glass manufacture
- C) In steel manufacture
- D) In paints & varnishes
Ans.A
MOCK Q.454
- Custom duty on non-edible oils has been reduced to encourage soaps & oleochemicals. What are
Oleochemicals ?
- These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products
- They are analogous to petrochemicals derived from petroleum.
Which among the above are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
These are the chemicals derived from the Plant products & animal fats.
MOCK Q.453
- Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League ?
- Chad
- Israel
- South Sudan
- Libya
- Oman
Which among the above is/are correct ?
- A) 3,4,5
- B) Only 1 & 2
- C) 1,2,5
- D) All are the members
Ans. B
The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by Egypt, Iraq, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria,
Transjordan (Jordan from 1946) and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a continual
increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century, with additional 15 Arab states and
4 observers being admitted.
MOCK Q.452
Q.4 Which of the following is superimposed international boundary ?
- A) USA –Mexico boundary
- B) India-Pakistan boundary along Jammu & Kashmir
- C) 38th North parallel boundary between North & south Korea
- D) Chile-Argentina boundary along Andes
Ans. B
A superimposed boundary is a boundary that has been imposed on an area by an outside or conquering
power. This boundary ignores the cultural organizations on this landscape
MOCK Q.451
- Land reclamation is the subject dealt by :
- A) Ministry of rural development
- B) Ministry of agriculture
- C) Ministry of panchayati raj
- D) Ministry of earth sciences
Ans. B
Land reclamation, usually known as reclamation, and also known as land fill (not to be confused with a
landfill), is the process of creating new land from oceans, seas, riverbeds or lake beds. The land
reclaimed is known as reclamation ground or land fill.
MOCK Q.450
Q.Who among the following founded Theosophical society ?
- A) Madam Blavatsky & Annie Besant
- B) A.O. Hume & Annie Besant
- C) H.S. Alcott & Annie Besant
- D) Madam Blavatsky & H.S Alcott
Ans. A
The Theosophical Society was an organization formed in the United States in 1875 by Helena Blavatsky
to advance Theosophy. The original organization, after splits and realignments, currently has several
successors. Following the death of Blavatsky, competition within the Society between factions emerged,
particularly among founding members and the organisation split between the Theosophical Society Adyar
(Olcott-Besant) and the Theosophical Society Pasadena (Judge). The former group, headquartered in India
, is the most widespread international group holding the name “Theosophical Society” today.
MOCK Q.449
- The ‘Kurram’ of Chola period were :
- A) Musicians
- B) Union of villages
- C) Royal officers
- D) Temple artisans
Ans. B
Chola political system was the only one which still maintained contact with the cultivator on a wild
scale, and retained characteristics of a centrally organized administration. The political status
Rajaraja I was certainly different from that of Amoghavarsha, the Rashtrakuta ruler, or Vishnuvardhana,
the Hoysala ruler. The titles used by the Chola kings were Chakrvartigal (or Chakravarti). The royal
household was run on an elaborate scale and royal patronage was lavish. The political role of Purohita
(priest) as known to northern Indian politics underwent a modification in the Chola system. The
Rajguru (priest of the royal family) of the Cholas became a confidant and confessor in addition to
being the advisor in all matters temporal and sacred. For further advice there was an assembly of
officer whom the king would consult.
Chola kingdom was divided into provinces (mandalam), their being generally eight or nine of these.
Each mandalam was divided into valanadus (or districts). These in turn were subdivided into groups of
villages, variously called kurram, nadu, or kottam. Occasionally a very large village would be
administered as a single unit and this was called Taniyur. The administrative unit was the village and
to that extent there was a little significant difference between Chola administration and that of the
Guptas. However, the nature of the village administration was certainly of a very different order. The
degree of autonomy at village level was something quiet remarkable for the times. Chola officials
participated in village affairs more as advisors and observers than as administrators.
The basic assumption in the type of village autonomy emerging at this period was that each village
should be administered by the villagers themselves. For the purpose a village assembly was formed, and
authority was vested in this assembly.
The general assemblies included most of the local residents and were of three categories: the ur
consisted of the tax paying residents of an ordinary village; the sabha was restricted to the Brahmans
of the village or else was found exclusively in villages gifted to Brahmans; and finally, the nagaram
was found more commonly in trade centers. In some villages the ur and the sabha were found together.
Very large villages had two urs if this was more convenient for their functioning. The working of
these assemblies differed according to local conditions. The ur was open to all male adults of the
village but in affect the older members took a more prominent part, some of them forming a small
executive body for routine matters. The sabha had the same system and in addition had the power to
constitute smaller committees of any size from among its members.
MOCK Q.448- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Consider the following passage :
“The length of the saree in this folk dance is about 3 inches above the heel.Music in this dance is
played using Tirio (A bamboo flute with seven holes).Women dancers usually wear white or yellow sarees
with red borders & adorn their hair with wild flowers.
Which among the following folk dance has been discussed in the above passage ?
- A) Santhal dance
- B) Karma dance
- C) Bidesiya dance
- D) Jhijhiya dance
Ans. A
Santhal dance – Jharkhand
Karma dance – Jharkhand
Bidesiya dance – Bihar
Jhijhiya dance-Bihar
MOCK Q.447- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- With reference to the Kolkali dance ,consider the following statements :
- It is basically a tribal dance form undertaken annually on the Karma festival , although it is
performed on different social occasions as well
2.Only male dancers can participate in this dance
- It is a highly rhythmic dance with the dancers wielding short sticks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A)1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Karma dance: It is basically a tribal dance form undertaken annually on the Karma festival , although
it is performed on different social occasions as well
MOCK Q.446- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Consider the following pairs :
Community Place
1.Ahir Haryana
2.Manganiyars South India
3.Kambala Nayaka Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Community of people Manganiyars is well known for their musical tradition in North East India
Ahir community of Gurgaon, Haryana is known for th Dhamal dance
MOCK Q.445- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Consider the following statements :
- Lavani, Gatka & Thang-Ta folk dances are associated with the display of military skills by
traditional community
- Chhau folk dance blends both dance & martial arts employing mock combat techniques
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Gatka, Thang-Ta & Choliya folk dances are associated the display of military skills by traditional
community, but not Lavani dance
Chhau folk dance of West Bengal blends both dance & martial arts employing mock combat techniques.
This dance is performed during night in an open space , called Akhara or Asar
MOCK Q.444- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Consider the following statements :
- Caves at Nagarjuni hills was dedicated by Ashoka & his grandson , Dashratha Maurya to the Ajivika
Monks
2.Bharhut stupa constructed under Mauryas shows influence of Greeks on Indian art
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Bharhut stupa constructed under Shungas shows influence of Greeks on Indian art
Caves at Nagarjuni hills was dedicated by Ashoka & his grandson , Dashratha Maurya to the Ajivika Monks
MOCK Q.443- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Consider the following statements :
1.Singhi Chham folk dance pays homage to the Kanchenjunga peaks, which when bathed in sunlight, look
like a snow lion
- Wancho dance belongs to the state of Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Singhi Chham folk dance pays homage to the Kanchenjunga peaks, which when bathed in sunlight, look like
a snow lion
Wancho dance belongs to the state of Arunachal Pradesh
MOCK Q.442- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- With reference to the Kangra Paintings , consider the following statements :
1.Paintings were made on the walls of palaces , inner chambers of forts & havellis
- Theme of painting is mainly elements of nature
- Surface of the painting is often divided into the several compartments of different colors in order
to separate one scene from another
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
Rajasthani Paintings :
-Paintings were made on the walls of palaces , inner chambers of forts & havellis
– Surface of the painting is often divided into the several compartments of different colors in order
to separate one scene from another
Kangra Paintings :
Kangra painting is the pictorial art of Kangra, named after Kangra, Himachal Pradesh, a former princely
state, which patronized the art. It became prevalent with the fading of Basohli school of painting in
mid-18th century,and soon produced such a magnitude in paintings both in content as well as volume,
that the Pahari painting school, came to be known as Kangra paintings.
The distinguishing features of the Kangra painting were: Soft colours including cool blues and greens.
Lyrical treatment of themes.
Theme of painting is mainly elements of nature
MOCK Q.441- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Madhubani Paintings ?
- These are the short lived water color paintings produced in the 19th century by the artists of the
Bihar
- No space is left empty in these paintings as the gaps are filled with the paintings of flower ,
animals, birds & even geometric designs
- Three dimensional images are used in these types of paintings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Madhubani Painting
Madhubani painting is one of the many famous Indian art forms. As it is practiced in the Mithila region
of Bihar and Nepal, it is called Mithila or Madhubani art. Often characterized by complex geometrical
patterns, these paintings are known for representing ritual content for particular occasions, including
festivals, religious rituals, etc. The colors used in Madhubani paintings are usually derived from
plants and other natural sources. These colors are often bright and pigments like lampblack and ochre
are used to create black and brown respectively. Instead of contemporary brushes, objects like twigs,
matchsticks and even fingers are used to create the paintings.
Kalighat Paintings : These are the short lived water color paintings produced in the 19th century by
the artists in Calcutta
MOCK Q.440- FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
- Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Basholi style of painting ?
- This style of painting was inspired by the naturalistic style of the mughal painting
2.Human figures were shown with tight lips , eyes half open , small chin & thin wrist
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Guler style : This style of painting was inspired by the naturalistic style of the mughal painting
Bikaner School : Human figures were shown with tight lips , eyes half open , small chin & thin wrist
Basholi style of painting :
Basohli Paintings is a fusion of Hindu mythology, Mughal miniature techniques and folk art of the local
hills, evolved in the 17th and 18th centuries as a distinctive style of painting. This style of
painting derives its name from the place of its origin – hill town of Basohli about 80 Km. from the
centre of district Kathua in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
The most popular themes of Basohli Paintings come from Shringara literature like Rasamanjari or Bouquet
of Delight ( a long love poem written in 15th century by Bhanudatta of Tirhut Bihar ), Gita Govinda and
Ragamala. These paintings are marked by striking blazing colors, red borders, bold lines and rich
symbols. The faces of the figures painted are characterized by the receding foreheads and large
expressive eyes, shaped like lotus petals. The painting themselves are mostly painted in the primary
colors of Red, Blue and Yellow.
This style of painting was first introduced to the world in the annual report (1918-19) of the
Archaeological Survey of India published in 1921. At that time this style was yet to be properly
categorized and studied. Ananda K. Coomaraswamy was the first to publish them, in Rajput Paintings in
1916.
MOCK Q.439- FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM-MODERN INDIA
- What was the reason for the congress to accept dominion status ?
- A) It would offer a chance to keep India in the commonwealth
- B) It would allow for some much needed continuity in the bureaucracy & the army
- C) It would provide the economic strength , defence potential & greater value of trade & Investment in India
- D) All of the above
Ans. B
The Congress was willing to accept Dominion Status for a while despite its being against the spirit of
Lahore Congress (1929) declaration of “Purna Swaraj” because:-
- Congress wanted a quick transfer of power in a peaceful manner
- It was important for congress to assume authority and power to check the explosive situation due to communal tension
- Dominion Status gave breathing time to the new administration as British officers and civil service officials could stay on till Indians get settled in their new positions.
For Britain, Dominion Status offered a chance of keeping India in the Commonwealth, even if temporarily. Though Jinnah offered to bring Pakistan into the Commonwealth, a greater store was laid by India’s membership of the Commonwealth, as India’s economic strength and defence potential were deemed sounder and Britain had a greater value of trade and Investment there.
MOCK Q.438- FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM-MODERN INDIA
- Which among the following is/are correct with reference to the Plan Balkan ?
- It was completed and presented on 15-16 April 1947 by Mountbatten to assembly of provincial governors in Delhi
- This plan was welcomed by the Nehru & other leaders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Plan Balkan was completed and presented on 15-16 April 1947 by Hastings Ismay to assembly of provincial governors in Delhi. Due to this, this plan was also called “Ismay Plan”.
- Balkan plan was an alternative plan to Cabinet mission. Between March and May of 1947, Mountbatten decided that the Cabinet Mission Plan had become untenable and formulated an alternative plan. This plan envisaged the transfer of power to separate provinces (or to a confederation, if formed before the transfer), with Punjab and Bengal given the option to vote for partition of their provinces.
- The various units thus formed along with the princely states (rendered independent by lapse of paramountcy) would have the option of joining India or Pakistan or remaining separate. The plan was quickly abandoned after Nehru reacted violently to it.
MOCK Q.437- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU-CURRENT AFFAIRS
- With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Karam Yogi Maandhan Scheme, consider the following statements :
- Under this scheme shopkeepers & retail traders will receive a guaranteed monthly pension of Rs. 3000 after they reach the age of 60 years
- To get benefit of this scheme, It is mandatory to get register between the age of 45 years to 59 years
- Pension benefits to retail traders & small shopkeepers with annual turnover less than Rs. 1.5 crores
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2.3
Ans. A
Pradhan Mantri Karam Yogi Maandhan Scheme :
Pension benefits to retail traders & small shopkeepers with annual turnover less than Rs. 1.5 crores
Under this scheme shopkeepers & retail traders will receive a guaranteed monthly pension of Rs. 3000
after they reach the age of 60 years.
MOCK Q.436- FRAMED FROM Krishna Reddy-Indian History
- With reference to the Tutinama “Tales of Parrot”, consider the following statements :
- It is an illustrated version containing 200 miniature paintings that was commissioned by the Mughal
Emperor Akbar in the later part of the 16th century
- It is the 14th century Persian series of 52 stories
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Tutinama “Tales of Parrot”,is an illustrated version containing 250 miniature paintings that was
commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Akbar in the later part of the 16th century.
It is the 14th century Persian series of 52 stories
-Adventure stories naraated by the parrot were : Ninght after Night, For 52 successive nights, are
moralistic stories to persuade his owner Khojasta not to commit any adulterous act with any lover, in
the absence of her husband.
MOCK Q.435- FRAMED FROM Krishna Reddy-Indian History
- Who among the following Mughal Emperor put emphasis upon aristocracy & secularism through the Mughal
school of painting?
- A) Jahangir
- B) Akbar
- C) Aurangzeb
- D) Shahjahan
Ans. B
Mughal school of paintings originated in AD during the reign of Akbar.These paintings are based on the
close observation of nature & fine & delicate drawing .
These paintings are themed upon aristocracy & secularism.
MOCK Q.434- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- Consider the following statements :
- Under the Vote of Credit, Lok Sabha authorizes the council of ministers to continue to incur
expenditure out of the consolidated fund of India till next appropriation bill is adopted
2.In Budget 2017, Lok Sabha adopted Vote of Credit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Vote of Credit – It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on
account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with
the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by
the Lok Sabha.
So far , it has not been adopted in India
Under the Vote of Account, Lok Sabha authorizes the council of ministers to continue to incur
expenditure out of the consolidated fund of India till next appropriation bill is adopted
MOCK Q.433- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- Which among the following motions can be moved in Lok Sabha only ?
- Call Attention Motion
- Adjournment Motion
- Cut Motions
- Censure Motion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2 & 4
- B) 1,3,4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
Adjournment Motion, Cut Motions, Censure Motion- can be moved in Lok Sabha only
Call attention motion in the Rajya Sabha is called Motion For Papers
(i) Adjournment Motion:
At the end of the question-hour in the Parliament, motion moved by a member when it is desired to draw
the attention of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a definite matter of urgent public
importance.
(ii) Privilege Motion:
A motion moved by a member if he feels that a Minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House
or of any one or more of its members by withholding the facts of a case or by giving a distorted
version of facts etc.
(iii) Censure Motion:
A motion which seeks to censure the government for its “lapse”. If the motion is passed in the Popular
House, the Cabinet resigns.
(iv) ‘No-Confidence’ Motion:
A motion moved by a member to express lack of confidence in the government for any reason. The motion,
if allowed, be debated upon. At the conclusion of such debate, a vote of confidence is sought by the
government and if it fails to get the required majority of votes, it has to resign.
(v) Calling Attention Motion:
A member may, with prior permission of the Speaker, call the attention of a Minister to any matter of
urgent public importance and the Minister may make a brief Statement regarding the matter or ask for
time to make a Statement.
(vi) Cut Motion:
A motion that seeks reduction in the amount of a demand presented by the government is known as a cut
motion. Such motions are admitted at the Speaker’s discretion. It is a device through which members can
draw the attention of the government to a specific grievance or problem. There are three types of Cut
Motion:
(a) Disapproval of Policy Cut:
It means to express disapproval of the policy underlying.
(b) Economy Cut:
Asks for a reduction of the amount of the demand by a specific amount.
(c) Token Cut:
Is a device to ventilate specific grievances within the .sphere of the government’s responsibility. The
grievances have to be specified. Usually the motion envisages a small reduc¬tion in the demand.
MOCK Q.432- FRAMED FROM SHANKAR IAS
- Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to the Climate Investment Funds ?
- The operation of the Financial Mechanism is partly entrusted to the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
- These funds were approved by MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency) in 2008 to address climate change
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) were designed by developed and developing countries and are
implemented with the multilateral development banks (MDBs) to bridge the financing and learning gap
between now and the next international climate change agreement.
CIFs are two distinct funds: the Clean Technology Fund and the Strategic Climate Fund.
The CIFs are additional to existing Official Development Assistance (ODA) and aim to enable countries
to continue on their development path and achieve the Millennium Development Goals. These funds will be
operated in close coordination with existing bilateral and multilateral efforts.
The funds were approved by the World Bank Board of Directors in July 2008 and on September 26, 2008
received pledges of US$6.5 billion.
The Climate Investment Funds include the:
- Clean Technology Fund
- Strategic Climate Fund
- Forest Investment Program
- Pilot Program for Climate Resilience
- Scaling Up Renewable Energy Program, and
- Private Sector
MOCK Q.431- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct with reference to the Charged Expenditure ?
1.It is that part of the appropriation bill which does not require approval of the Parliament
- If the appropriation bill is defeated in the Lok Sabha , it has no impact on the charged expenditure
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Charged Expenditure :
It is that part of the appropriation bill which does not require approval of the Parliament
If the appropriation bill is defeated in the Lok Sabha , it has no impact on the charged expenditure
MOCK Q.430- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- With reference to the Parliamentary form of Government , consider the following statements :
1.Members of executive & legislature may be different, hence coordination between them may be weak
2.Executive has a definite majority in Lok Sabha , thus a check of legislature over executive is weak
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Presidential Government : Members of executive & legislature are different, hence coordination between
them may be weak
Parliamentary form of Government : Members of executive are appointed from the legislature , the
ability of executive to influence legislature is high.
Executive has a definite majority in Lok Sabha , thus a check of legislature over executive is weak
MOCK Q.429- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- With reference to the Deputy Prime Minister, consider the following statements :
- It is the second highest rank in the council of Ministers , who are given full powers in the absence
of Prime Minister
- It is not a constitutional position
- Deputy Prime Minister also enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minster
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. D
Ist statement is a fabricated statement.
Ministers of State : They are the second highest ranking ministers , who are not given independent charge of ministry or department
Deputy Prime Minister is not a constitutional position
Supreme Court has held that Deputy Prime Minister also enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minster
MOCK Q.428- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- Who among the following is considered as the custodian of the Constitution of India ?
- A) Chief Justice of India
- B) Supreme Court of India
- C) President of India
- D) Attorney General of India
Ans. C
President of India is considered as the custodian of the Constitution of India
Supreme Court is considered as the Guardian of the Constitution of India
MOCK Q.427- FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
- Consider the following statements :
- Discretionary powers of the President of India are exercised without the aid & advice of council of
ministers
2.42nd amendment act restored the discretion of President to refer the advice back to the council of
Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
44th amendment act restored the discretion of President to refer the advice back to the council of
Ministers
Discretionary powers of the President of India are exercised without the aid & advice of council of
ministers
MOCK Q.426- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY
- With reference to the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), consider the following statements :
- TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods
2.TFA requires developed countries should reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies
- It contains provisions for technical & financial assistance in trade facilitation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. C
Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) : TFA was the first multilateral trade deal in 21 years signed in
Bali in 2013 for easing cross border custom rules for faster movement of goods
TFA contains provisions for technical assistance & capacity building in trade facilitation
Provision of Fourth Ministerial Meeting in Doha, Qatar (2001) : TFA requires developed countries should
reduce the domestic support given to agriculture in the form of Green box subsidies
MOCK Q.425- FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMY
- Which one of the following does not comes under the category of Back Office Outsourcing ?
- A) Call centre services
- B) Banking
- C) Media & Entertainment
- D) Travel & Hospitality
Ans. A
Call centre services : Front Office Outsourcing
Back Office Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Services
An organization’s back office management can significantly impact its success. Large volumes of data accrue on a daily basis, from various transactional processes such as order fulfilment, applications processing, transaction processing, billing, and collections that require effective back office solutions. Invensis is a reputed leader in empowering numerous global businesses and organizations through high quality back office BPO services that promote enhanced business efficiency and improved bottom-line.
back office outsourcing services extend across industries such as:
- Finance
- Banking
- Insurance
- Healthcare
- Manufacturing & Chemical
- Travel & Hospitality
- Media & Entertainment
- Utilities
- Logistics and Customs Brokerage
- Automotive
- Education
- Mortgage
- Government
MOCK Q.424- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS
- Which of the following best describes the Blue Carbon Initiative ?
- A) It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of
marine ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses
- B) It refers to the technique of capturing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere & keeping it stored over
a long period time
- C) It is an initiative to understand , quantify & manage greenhouse gas emissions so that rise in
temperature by the end of century does not exceed 20 c or even 1.50c above pre-industrial levels
- D) It is an international initiative by providing technical & financial support to targeted developing
countries to integrate climate change into their development policies & budgets
Ans. A
It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of marine
ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses
The Initiative is coordinated by Conservation International (CI), the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations
Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO). The Initiative works through two
working groups: the International Blue Carbon Scientific Working Group and the International Blue
Carbon Policy Working Group.
MOCK Q.423- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS
- Consider the following :
Protected Area Network Fauna
- Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Saltwater crocodile
- Seshachalam hills : Sloth bear
- Cold Desert : Snow Leopard
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Seshachalam hills : Slender Loris
Panna : Tiger, Chittal ,Chinkara, Sambhar & Sloth Bear
MOCK Q.422- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS
- With reference to the Hope Spots, consider the following statements :
- Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have very recently been named as the new Hope Spots
- These are declared under the Wildlife protection Act, 1972
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
-Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have recently (Not very recently) been named as the
new Hope Spots
-List of Hope spots is prepared by the IUCN & Mission Blue
-Hope Spots are areas of an ocean that need special protection because of their wildlife & significant
underwater habitats
MOCK Q.421- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS
- In which of the following region in India are you most likely to come across the ‘Golden Langur’ in its natural habitat ?
- A) Grasslands of Western Ghats
- B) Malabar region of Kerala
- C) Western Assam
- D) Sand deserts of north-west India
Ans. C
Golden langur, is an Old World monkey found in a small region of western Assam, India and in the
neighboring foothills of the Black Mountains of Bhutan. It is one of the most endangered primate species
of India.
The regions of its distribution are very small; the main region is limited to an area approximately
60 miles square bounded on the south by the Brahmaputra River, on the east by the Manas River, on the
west by the Sankosh River, all in Assam, India, and on the north by the Black Mountains of Bhutan.
MOCK Q.420- FRAMED FROM Indian Express
- On account of which of the following reasons Chabahar port is relevant for India ?
- Chabahar port will increase dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan
- In October 2017, India began shipment of Rice, Wheat & Pulses to Afghanistan through the Iranian port
of Chabahar
- Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3,
Ans. A
-Chabahar port will reduce dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan
– In October 2017, India began shipment of Wheat to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar
– Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan
MOCK Q.419- FRAMED FROM Indian Express
- With reference to the Official Development Assistance, consider the following statements :
- ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation
& Development (OECD) for the first time in 1959
2.Japan is the only developed nation that signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time is 1969
India is the largest recipient of Japanese Official Development Assistance (ODA)
MOCK Q.418- FRAMED FROM “Google Books”
- With reference to the Dongria Kondh, consider the following statements :
- These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups worshiping Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain
- Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group & linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman group
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Karbi tribe : Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group & linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-
Burman group
Dongria Kondh : Of Odisha ; These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups who worship Niyam Raja
of sacred Niyamgiri mountain
They also won legal battle against Vedanta group over Bauxite mining in the region
MOCK Q.417- FRAMED FROM “Google Books”
- Every year a community celebrates a festival , Hari Jyoti for planting fruit bearing trees at the
beginning of the rains & the new sowing season. Which of the following is such community/ tribe ?
- A) Gonds
- B) Dongria Kondh
- C) Bonda
- D) Karbi
Ans. A
Gonds : Of Madhya Pradesh
Korku tribe : Of Madhya Pradesh
Karbi tribe : Of Assam
Limbo tribe : Of Sikkim
Bonda : Of Odisha
Dongria Kondh : Of Odisha
Korku tribe : Of Madhya Pradesh
MOCK Q.416- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- To fulfill the Government of India’s mission & to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the
country, Academia Alliance Programme has been formed. With whose initiative Academia Alliance Programme
has been formed ?
- A) Niti Ayog
- B) Confederation of Indian Industries
- C) Startup India
- D) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
Ans. C
To fulfill the Governmentof India’s mission to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country,
Startup India launched the Startup Academia Alliance programme, a unique mentorship opportunity between
academic scholars and startups working in similar domains.
The Startup Academia Alliance aims to reduce the gap between scientific research and its industrial
applications in order to increase the efficacy of these technologies and to widen their impact. By
creating a bridge between academia and industry, the Alliance strives to create lasting connections
between the stakeholders of the startup ecosystem and implement the third pillar on which the Startup
India Action Plan is based – Industry Academia Partnerships and Incubation.
The first phase of Startup Academia Alliance was kickstarted through partnering with Regional Centre
for Biotechnology, The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), Council on Energy, Environment and Water,
and TERI School of Advanced Studies. Renowned scholars from these institutes, in fields such as renewable
energy, biotechnology, healthcare and life sciences were taken on board to provide mentorship and
guidance to startups working in relevant arenas.
MOCK Q.415- FRAMED FROM “SPECTRUM HISTORY”
- Consider the following statements :
- In 1916 session Congress accepted theMuslim League demand of separate electorates
- Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 points
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
In 1916 session Congress accepted the Muslim League demand of separate electorates & the Congress & The
League presented joint demands to the government.
Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 points
MOCK Q.414- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With respect to the South Asia Sub Regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) , consider the following statements :
- SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity
- World Trade Organisation serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member Countries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity
It brings together Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives , Myanmar, Nepal , Srilanka
Manila, Phillipines based Asian development Bank (ADB) serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member
Countries
MOCK Q.413- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) , consider the following statements :
- PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands
- The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal
- 121 member states are the part of the PCA including India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA):
PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899
The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal
121 member states (119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo & Palestine) are the part of
the PCA. India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899.
MOCK Q.412- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With respect to the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing & Urban Development (APMCHUD) ,
consider the following statements :
- Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020”
- It was established under the aegis & support of UN Habitat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are in correct
Ans. B
Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ Emerging Urban Forms –Policy
Reforms & Governance Structures in the Context of New Urban Agenda”
2006 THEME : “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020
MOCK Q.411- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With respect to the International Trade Centre , consider the following statements :
- ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) & World Trade Organisation (WTO)
- They are subordinate to the United Nations & derive most of their financial resources other than the Union Nation Budgets
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are in correct
Ans. A
ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) &
World Trade Organisation (WTO)
ITC’s regular programme is financed in equal parts by WTO & UN.
MOCK Q.410- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- Which among the following crops have been classified under the category of Minor Forest products ?
- Tendu Patta
- Bamboo
- Pulpwood
- Soapnut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,4
- B) Only 1 & 3
- C) 1,3,4
- D) Only 1 & 4
Ans. A
The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood, Sandalwood, Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber.
The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind, curry leaf, Tendu Patta, gallnut, Cane,
Soapnut, tree moss and now Bamboo also.
MOCK Q.409- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With reference to the news what is “INSTEX” ?
- A) It is a 2000 ft long device to start clean up in the North Pacific Ocean
- B) It is a transaction channel that will allow companies to continue trading with Iran despite US sanctions
- C) It is a natural gas pipeline being developed with the participation of the Asian Development Bank
- D) It is the rule book that sets out how countries will provide information about their Nationally Determined Contributions
Ans. B
- The transaction channel will allow European businesses to trade with Iran, despite strict US sanctions.
- Though the payment channel is a project of Britain, France and Germany, it will receive the formal
endorsement of all 28 EU members.
- It will support legitimate European trade with Iran, focusing initially on the sectors most essential
to the Iranian population such as pharmaceutical, medical devices and agri-food goods.
- In the longer term, INSTEX aims to be open to third countries wanting to trade with Iran.
- However, INSTEX is not yet operational as it needs Iran to set up a parallel structure of its own,
which may take some time to complete.
- While it is aimed at small and medium-sized companies, it is expected to send an important message to
Iran about Europe’s commitment to keep the nuclear deal alive.
Objective
The launch of the special payment channel is a clear and practical demonstration of Europe’s commitment
to continuing the nuclear deal.
It, however, does not in any way preclude the European Union from addressing Iran’s hostile and
destabilising activities.
Europe has toughened its tone on Iran’s ballistic missile programme, human rights record and
interference in Middle East conflicts.
MOCK Q.408- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana, consider the following statements :
- Spouse will not be entitled to receive pension in case of death
- Workers covered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation will not be entitled to pension
- It is 100% funded by the Union government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
- The unorganised sector workers, with income of less than Rs 15,000 per month and who belong to
the entry age group of 18-40 years, will be eligible for the scheme.
- Those workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance
Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
- He or she should not be an income tax payer.
The workers of unorganised sector can be home based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head
loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washer men, rickshaw pullers,
landless labourers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers,
handloom workers, leather workers, audio- visual workers and similar other occupations.
Benefits under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana
Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme will receive minimum assured pension of
Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
In case of death during receipt of pension: If the subscriber dies during the receipt of pension, his
or her spouse will be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as family pension. This family
pension is applicable only to spouse.
In case of death before the age of 60 years: If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and dies
before attaining the age of 60 years, his or her spouse will be entitled to continue the scheme
subsequently by payment of regular contribution or may even exit the scheme.
Equal contribution by the Central Government: Under the PM-SYM, the prescribed age-specific
contribution by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government will be made on
a ‘50:50 basis’.
MOCK Q.407- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme ?
- A) It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and
facilitating startups
- B) It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship
and Skills
- C) It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund
science projects
- D) It is the scheme implemented by Institution’s Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing
opportunities for a life-long learning
Ans. C
SHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills
Functioning of the Scheme:
The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) which
provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every
industry.
The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) initially in the Banking Finance
Insurance Services (BFSI), Retail, Health care, Telecom, Logistics, Media, Management services, ITeS
and Apparel.
More sectors would be added over time with emerging apprenticeship demand.
MOCK Q.406- FRAMED FROM “IUCN WEBSITE”
- With reference to the Sandbag Climate Campaign , consider the following statements :
- It was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme
- It addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
–Sandbag or Sandbag Climate Campaign is a Community Interest Company, campaigning for changes to
European climate change policy, especially emissions trading.
The organisation was launched in 2008 by Bryony Worthington and was the first (and founding) member of
The Guardian’s Environment Network
Sandbag was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme, allowing its
members to campaign to reduce the number of permits in circulation and to purchase permits and cancel
them.
Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF): The forum addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result
of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities.
MOCK Q.405- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana, consider the following statements :
- It will provide assured income to all Institutional Land holders of Rs 6000 per year
- It is based on providing guaranteed amount of Rs. 1000/- or Rs.2000 per hectare in case of drought or loss of crop by the animals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
- The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi will provide assured income to small and marginal farmers.
- All Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF) with 2 hectares of cultivable land will be provided income
support of Rs 6000 per year.
- The amount will be transferred directly into their account in 3 equal installments.
- The complete expenditure of Rs 75000 crore for the scheme will borne by the Union Government in
2019-20.
- Over 12 crore farmer families will be benefitted under the scheme.
The scheme is being implemented with effect from December 2018.
The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefit under the scheme.
(A) All Institutional Land holders.
(B) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories:
- Former and present holders of constitutional posts.
- Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils,former and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats.
- All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees).
- All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is ₹10,000/-or more (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees) of above category.
- All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year.
- Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.
MOCK Q.404- FRAMED FROM “Spectrum- Modern India”
- Swadeshi Sangam was formed to ispire the local masses through magic lantern lectures, Swadeshi songs.
Who was/were the members of the Swadeshi Sangam ?
- V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
- Abanindranath Tagore
- Subramania Siva
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
In Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, Subramania Siva & Some lawyers formed the Swadeshi
Sangam which inspired the local masses
MOCK Q.403- FRAMED FROM “Spectrum- Modern India”
- With reference to the Indian National Movement , What was Official Secrets Act ?
- A) Under this act Natu brothers were deported without trial & Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition
- B) Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 A
- C) It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press
- D) Under this act, It ensured greater government control over the universities
Ans. C
Official Secrets Act : 1904, It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press
1897 : Natu brothers were deported without trial & Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition
1898 : Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 A
Indian Universities Act, 1904 : greater government control over the universities
MOCK Q.402- FRAMED FROM “The Hindu”
- With reference to the Halogen Light Bulbs, consider the following statements :
- White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays
- They have the same tungsten filament as the typical incandescent light bulbs
- Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1,2,3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
Fluorescent bulbs : White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays
Vapour lamps : Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness
A halogen lamp, also known as a tungsten halogen, quartz-halogen or quartz iodine lamp, is an
incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed into a compact transparent envelope that is
filled with a mixture of an inert gas and a small amount of a halogensuch as iodine or bromine.
The combination of the halogen gas and the tungsten filament produces a halogen cycle chemical reaction
which redeposits evaporated tungsten to the filament, increasing its life and maintaining the clarity
of the envelope. For this to happen, a halogen lamp must be operated at a higher envelope temperature
(250° C; 482° F)[1] than a standard vacuum incandescent lamp of similar power and operating life; this
also produces light with higher luminous efficacy and color temperature. The small size of halogen
lamps permits their use in compact optical systems for projectors and illumination. The small glass
envelope may be enclosed in a much larger outer glass bulb for a bigger package; the outer jacket will
be at a much lower and safer temperature, and it also protects the hot bulb from harmful contamination
and makes the bulb mechanically more similar to a conventional lamp that it might replace.
Standard and halogen incandescent bulbs are much less efficient than LED and compact fluorescent lamps,
and have been banned in many jurisdictions because of this.
MOCK Q.401- FRAMED FROM “The Hindu”
- Consider the following statements :
- Origin of Bitcoin is virtually anonymous & is not monitored by any Central bank or Government
- Anyone with a bitcoin address can send & receive bitcoins from anyone else with a bitcoin address
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency, a form of electronic cash. It is a decentralized digital currency without
a central bank or single administrator that can be sent from user to user on the peer-to-peer bitcoin
network without the need for intermediaries.
Transactions are verified by network nodes through cryptography and recorded in a public distributed
ledger called a blockchain. Bitcoin was invented by an unknown person or group of people using the name
Satoshi Nakamoto and released as open-source software in 2009. Bitcoins are created as a reward for a
process known as mining. They can be exchanged for other currencies, products, and services.
Research produced by the University of Cambridge estimates that in 2017, there were 2.9 to 5.8 million
unique users using a cryptocurrency wallet, most of them using bitcoin.
Bitcoin has been criticized for its use in illegal transactions, its high electricity consumption,
price volatility, thefts from exchanges, and the possibility that bitcoin is an economic bubble.
Bitcoin has also been used as an investment, although several regulatory agencies have issued investor
alerts about bitcoin.
MOCK Q.400- FRAMED FROM “M. LAXMIKANTH”
- Consider the following statements :
1.In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary
powers are left to the states
- Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration i.e. Federal , Provincial & Current
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
-In US , Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary
powers are left to the states
-Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three
list is vested in the Parliament
MOCK Q.399- FRAMED FROM “M. LAXMIKANTH”
- Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” ?
- A) It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance
- B) These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar,
Orissa & West Bengal
- C) Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state
- D) These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose,
even if it is not within their respective legislative competence
Ans. D
Statutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of
financial assistance
Other Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of
Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal
Discretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for
any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence
MOCK Q.398- FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With reference to the news what is Talanoa dialogue ?
- A) It is a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020
- B) It is a process to help countries by forming the rule book to implement the Paris Climate Agreement
- C) It gives countries a common framework for reporting and reviewing progress towards their climate targets
- D) It provides a global platform for the conservation of Migratory animals & their habitats
Ans. A
–The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference (“COP23”) was an international meeting of political leaders, non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues.
It was held at UN Campus in Bonn (Germany) from 6–17 November 2017.[1]
Although COP23 focused primarily on technical details of the Paris Agreement,
COP23 concluded with what was called the ‘Fiji Momentum for Implementation,’ which outlined the steps that need to be taken in 2018 to make the Paris Agreement operational and launched the –
Talanoa Dialogue – a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020
MOCK Q.397 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- Consider the following statements :
- Mangroves for the Future (MFF) has participation of Asian & African nations only
- IUCN & United Nation Development Programme (UNDP) developed MFF in 2006
- MFF not only conserves Mangrove forests but includes all types of coastal ecosystems like coral reefs,
estuaries, wetlands etc.
Select the correct answer using the correct codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Mangroves for the Future (MFF)
Location:
Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles,
Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Viet Nam
Outreach countries: Malaysia
Dialogue countries: Kenya and Tanzania
Duration: Established in 2006, MFF is currently in its third phase (2015 – 2018).
Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the
vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill
Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and
strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN
(International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006. Since then, MFF has grown to include eight institutional
partners, plus a growing number of countries. At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report* at the United
Nations in New York in April 2009, Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-
looking developments of the post-tsunami period.
Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal
ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a
platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are addressing
challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide
approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities.
Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem,
such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, seagrass and wetlands.
MOCK Q.396 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- Which one of the following best describes the term “Malacca Dilemma” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It refers to the demarcation line used initially by the government of republic of China
- B) ONGC Videsh Limited signed a contract with the petro Vietnam to jointly explore petroleum resources
- C) It is the Nine Dash line area that covers most of the South China sea & overlaps exclusive economic zone
- D) It signifies China’s dependency for the energy needs on West Asia
Ans. D
The “Malacca Dilemma” is a term coined by their President Hu Jintao(2003) on the over-reliance on the
Malacca Straits(sea-route) where 80% of their energy needs(oil imports) pass en-route from the Middle
East, Angola etc(shipping lanes); through the Malacca Straits(between Malaysia and Indonesia).
This area is also prone to piracy sometimes.
Conflict in the region; and their effect on China’s geopolitical and energy strategies; and other
issues that can crop up from time to time together constitute the “Malacca Dilemma”.
MOCK Q.395 – FRAMED FROM “GCCA WEBSITE”
- Global Climate Change Alliance Initiative for country’s vulnerability to climate change is managed by the :
- A) The European Commission
- B) The Global Environment Facility
- C) UNDP
- D) World Bank
Ans. A
The Global Climate Change Alliance Plus (GCCA+) is a European Union flagship initiative which is helping
the world’s most vulnerable countries to address climate change. Having started with just four pilot
projects in 2008, it has become a major climate initiative that has funded over 70 projects of national,
regional and worldwide scope in Africa, Asia, the Caribbean and the Pacific.
This EU initiative helps mainly Small Islands Developing States (SIDS) and Least Developed Countries
(LDCs) increase their resilience to climate change.
The GCCA+ also supports these group of countries in implementing their commitments resulting from the
2015 Paris Agreement on Climate Change (COP21), in line with the2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
and the new European Consensus on Development.
The GCCA+ initiative is making a significant contribution towards achieving the overall target of at
least 20 % of the EU budget spent for climate action. All GCCA+ projects must primarily aim at
facilitating the transition to a climate-resilient, low-carbon future in line with the 2°C target.
GCCA funding increased from EUR 317.5 million in the first phase (2007-2014) to EUR 420 million in the
second phase (2014-2020). Read more on financial resources.
MOCK Q.394 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU
- Which among the following topics are exempted from the courses covered under the LEAP & ARPIT
PROGRAMME for higher education faculty ?
- Establishment of the National Anti-profiteering Authority
- Internet of Things
- Tools, techniques and experiments in reducing Greenhouse gases emission
- Methodology of Teaching Sanskrit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 4
- B) Only 1
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,4
Ans. C
HRD Ministry launches LEAP and ARPIT programmes for higher education faculty
The courses cover a diverse range of topics such as:
Indian culture and Heritage Studies
Tribal and Regional languages, Urdu, French Studies,
Pedagogical Innovations & Research Methodology
Tools, techniques and experiments in Earth Science,
Latest Trends in Pedagogy and Assessment
Mathematics, Statistics, Zoology, Chemistry, Physics, Biotechnology, Biomechanics
Personal-Emotional Development and Counselling Marine Science,
Calculus, Real Time Power Analysis and Smart Grid
Neural Networks and Deep Learning & Knowledge discovery
Civil Infrastructure for Smart City Development
ICT in Science and Maths teaching
Engineering Mechanics, Design Spectrum, DIY Manufacturing Technology
Innovation and Best Practices in Educational Skills
Advanced Concepts in Fluid Mechanics,
Energy Systems Engineering
Leadership and Governance in Higher Education
Engineering Mechanics, Physics of Semiconductors and Devices, Electrical Engineering
Public Policy and Administration
Bio-Medical engineering,
Metallurgical Engineering and Materials Sciences, Chemical Engineering
English Language Teaching
Internet of Things
Hindi Literature & Linguistics
Astronomy and Astrophysics
Methodology of Teaching Sanskrit
Aerospace Engineering, Tourism and Hospitality Management
Effective Creations and Innovative Researches in Medieval Gujarati Literature Political Science,
Economics, Psychology, Development Perspectives in Agriculture
Library & Information Science, Ethics,
Human Rights and Environment,
Anthropology
Gender/Women’s studies, Law, Social and Rural Development
Disaster Management, Climate change
MOCK Q.393 – FRAMED FROM “NITIN SIGHANIA
- Which among the following is/are correctly matched :
Community Place
- Dangasia Gujarat
- Gond Madhya Pradesh
- Mirgan Odisha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Dangasia Gujarat
Gond Madhya Pradesh
Mirgan Odisha
MOCK Q.392 – FRAMED FROM “SPECTRUM HISTORY
- B.R. Ambedkar is associated With Which of the following ?
- Bahishkrita Hitkarini Sabha
- Hindu Mahasabha
- Hindu Code bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Lala Lajpat Rai involvement with Hindu Mahasabha leaders gathered criticism from the Naujawan Bharat
Sabha as the Mahasabhas were non-secular, which did not conform with the system laid out by the Indian
National CongressHindu Mahasabha.
MOCK Q.391 – FRAMED FROM “IUCN WEBSITE
- With reference to the “Least Developed Countries Fund”, consider the following statements:
- This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility (GEF)
- Adaptation & Mitigation are one of the area of focus of this fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility (GEF)
Adaptation is one of the area of focus of this fund
MOCK Q.390 – FRAMED FROM “INDIAN CULTURE.GOV”
- Consider the following :
Sites Place
- Aalampur Temple : Telanagana
- European Tomb : Gujarat
- Khajurao Monuments : Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Other Important Sites :
Maharaja Chhatrasal Museum Complex : Madhya Pradesh
Mahabalipuram : Tamil Nadu
Uparkot : Gujarat
Kumarakom : Kerala
MOCK Q.389 – FRAMED FROM “IUCN WEBSITE”
Q.389 The Climate Chain Coalition (CCC) to support collaboration among members and stakeholders to advance blockchain and
related digital solutions, emerged at :
- A) 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference
- B) One Planet Summit
- C) COP-24, Katowice
- D) Paris Climate Summit
An. B
The Climate Chain Coalition (CCC) was born during the One Planet Summit in December in Paris France.
The Coalition engages a multi-stakeholder group working on distributed ledger technology (DLT) to
collaborate on mobilizing climate finance.
Plz Note : The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference was an international meeting of political
leaders, non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues. It was held at UN Campus in
Bonn from 6–17 November 2017. Also known as: COP23 (UNFCCC); CMP13 (Kyoto Protocol); CMA2
(Paris Agreement)
MOCK Q.388 – FRAMED FROM “IUCN WEBSITE”
- “Partnership for Market Readiness” is an initiative, which is managed by the :
- A) Global Environment Facility
- B) World Bank
- C) United Nation Environment Programme
- D) UNDP
Ans. B
Partnership for Market Readiness ;
ADMINISTERED BY: The World Bank
AREA OF FOCUS Mitigation;
DATE OPERATIONAL: 2011
MOCK Q.387 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.387 With reference to the religious practices in India, Sarvastivadin belongs to which ancient school ?
- A) Theravada
- B) Mahayanism
- C) Rajagirikars
- D) Hetuvadins
Ans. A
Sarvāstivāda were an early school of Buddhism established around the reign of Asoka (third century BCE).
It was particularly known as an Abhidharma tradition, with a unique set of seven Abhidharma works.
MOCK Q.386 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.386 With reference to the Initial Coin Offerings (ICO), consider the following statements :
- It is like Initial Public Offer that refers to the issue of cryptocurrency in consideration of funds received from investors
- 1.7 billion $ has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 & 2017
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
2.7 billion $ has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 & 2017
– An initial coin offering (ICO) or initial currency offering is a type of funding using cryptocurrencies
Mostly the process is done by crowdfunding but private ICO’s are becoming more common. In an ICO, a
quantity of cryptocurrency is sold in the form of “tokens” (“coins”) to speculators or investors, in
exchange for legal tender or other cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin or Ethereum. The tokens sold are
promoted as future functional units of currency if or when the ICO’s funding goal is met and the
project launches. In some cases like Ethereum the tokens are required to use the system for its purposes.
An ICO can be a source of capital for startup companies
MOCK Q.385 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.385 Nanotechnology can significantly increase manufacturing at far reduced costs. What are the
advantages of the Nanotechnology ?
- Anti scratch components of the automobiles are possible using the Nanotechnology
- Bullet proof & stain resistant clothing can be made using the Nanotechnology
- Nanotechnology offer cleaner technologies & cleaner environment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Nano sized particles can acculumate in various body parts such as nasal cavities , lungs & brain
Due to their minute size , nano particles are able to accumulate in the environment
MOCK Q.384 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
- With reference to the “India International Exchange” , consider the following statements :
- It was opened very recently at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat
- With this, it will be the third largest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response
Select the correct answer using the using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
-It was opened IN 2017 at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat
,BUT NOT VERY RECENTLY.
– With this, it will be the fastest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response with
the trade speed of four microseconds
-This is better than BSE’s domestic exchange in Mumbai, which has an order response time of six
microseconds
– Singapore is the second fastest International exchange has the order response of 60 microseconds
MOCK Q.383 – FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.383 In Context with the “Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)”, consider the following
statements :
- It is a greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions
- BECSS works by involving the process of pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
-Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) is a potential greenhouse gas mitigation technology
which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy (energy from biomass) use with
geologic carbon capture and storage.[1] The concept of BECCS is drawn from the integration of trees and
crops, which extract carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere as they grow, the use of this biomass in
processing industries or power plants, and the application of carbon capture and storage via CO2
injection into geological formations.[2]
There are other non-BECCS forms of carbon dioxide removal and storage that include technologies such as
biochar, carbon dioxide air captureand biomass burial[3] and enhanced weathering.
According to a recent Biorecro report, there is 550 000 tonnes CO2/year in total BECCS capacity
currently operating, divided between three different facilities (as of January 2012)
In the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), BECCS was
indicated as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets.[8]
The negative emissions that can be produced by BECCS has been estimated by the Royal Society to be
equivalent to a 50 to 150 ppmdecrease in global atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations[9] and
according to the International Energy Agency, the BLUE map climate change mitigation scenario calls for
more than 2 gigatonnes of negative CO2 emissions per year with BECCS in 2050.[10]
According to Stanford University, 10 gigatonnes is achievable by this date
According to the OECD, “Achieving lower concentration targets (450 ppm) depends significantly on the
use of BECCS”.[13]
An alternative to BECSS is pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar.[14] Which are
superior in order to fix carbon in a more stable way: solid C, for longer times. Carbon dioxide
injected into geologic formations eventually leaks back into the atmosphere due to seismic activity and
natural faults and problems with the seal of the ancient injection pits.
FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.382 Consider the following :
Tribes Place
- Bhoksa Uttarakhand
- Misting Sikkim
- Gonds Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Misting tribe is in Assam
FRAMED FROM “THE HINDU”
Q.381 Which of the following best describes Forward linkages with respect to the economic activity ?
- These refer to the transactions with the consumers
- For food processing industry, these linkages are associated with the primary processing centres
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Forward linkages :
-These refer to the transactions with the consumers
– These linkages are associated with the retail stores
Backward linkages :
-These refer to the transactions with the suppliers
-For food processing industry, these linkages are associated with the primary processing centres
FRAMED FROM “LUCENT PUBLICATIONS”
Q.380 Consider the following :
Hill Ranges Place
- Rajpipla : Gujarat
- Mahadeo : Madhya Pradesh
- Maikala range : Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh & Chhatisgarh
FRAMED FROM “WIKIPEDIA”
Q.379 Consider the following statements :
- Loktak lake, the biggest fresh water lake is home to the endangered Sangai deer
- Keibul Lamjao is an integral part of the Loktak Lake
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Lok tak lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis
(heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition) floating
over it. The lake is located near Moirang in Manipurstate, India.
The etymology of Loktak is Lok = “stream” and tak = “the end”.
The largest of all the phumdis covers an area of 40 km2(15 sq mi) and is situated on the southeastern
shore of the lake. Located on this phumdi, Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national
park in the world. The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered Sangai (state animal),
Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), one of three subspecies of
Eld’s deer
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in
India. It is 40 km2 (15.4 sq mi) in area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East
India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.
To preserve the natural refuge of the endangered Manipur Eld’s deer or brow-antlered deer
(Cervus eldi eldi), or sangai also called the dancing deer, listed as an endangered species by IUCN,
the park which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966, was subsequently declared to be a
national park in 1977 through a gazette notification. The act has generated local support and public
awareness.
FRAMED FROM “SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT.UN.ORG”
Q.378 “Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience” to promote green growth , emerged at :
- A) Global Green Growth Institute
- B) Greenpeace
- C) European Environment Agency
- D) World Sustainable Development Summit 2011
Ans. A
The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international organization headquartered in
Seoul, South Korea. The organization aims to promote green growth, a growth paradigm that is
characterized by a balance of economic growth and environmental sustainability. GGGI provides research
and stakeholder engagement for green growth plans, especially in developing countries, aiming to
replace the more typical paradigm based on industrial development.
Founded to support green economic growth that simultaneously addresses poverty reduction, job creation,
social inclusion, and environmental sustainability, GGGI works across four priority areas that are
considered to be essential to transforming national economies, including energy, water, land use, and
green cities.
Motto Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience
Formation 16 June 2010
Headquarters Seoul, Republic of Korea
Membership 30 Member countries
Council chair Ban Ki Moon
Director-General Frank Rijsberman
Budget USD 55 million (2018
Q.377 The term “Climate Neutrality” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to :
- A) World Wild life Fund
- B) UNFCCC Secretariat
- C) Biocarbon Fund
- D) World wildlife Trust
Ans. B
The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the
secretariatlaunched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now,
as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.
The UNFCCC secretariat (UN Climate Change) was established in 1992 when countries adopted the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
With the subsequent adoption of the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 and the Paris Agreement in 2015, Parties
to these three agreements have progressively reaffirmed the secretariat’s role as the United Nations
entity tasked with supporting the global response to the threat of climate change.
Since 1995, the secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany.
The secretariat provides technical expertise and assists in the analysis and review of climate change
information reported by Parties and in the implementation of the Kyoto mechanisms. It also maintains
the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) established under the Paris Agreement, a key
aspect of implementation of the Paris Agreement.
The secretariat organizes and supports between two and four negotiating sessions each year. The largest
and most important is the Conference of the Parties, held annually and hosted in different locations
around the globe. It is the largest annual United Nations conference, attended on average by around
25,000 participants. In addition to these major conferences, the secretariat organizes annual sessions
of the so-called subsidiary bodies as well as a large number of meetings and workshops throughout the
year.
In recent years, the secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action,
agreed by governments to signal that successful climate action requires strong support from a wide
range of actors, including regions, cities, business, investors and all parts of civil society. At
UN Climate Change Conferences, a large number of events demonstrate how non-Party stakeholders are
working with governments and the UN system to implement the Paris Agreement.
FRAMED FROM “NDC PARTNERSHIP.ORG”
Q.376 With reference to the Special Climate Change Fund, consider the following statements :
- It was established in 1991 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change
- It is operated by United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP) & World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It was established in 2001 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change
It is operated by Global Environment Facility (GEF)
EXPLANATION :
In 2001, Parties to the UNFCCC established the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) to support climate
change activities that are complementary to the GEF’s climate change projects, with a special focus on
the most vulnerable countries. The objective of the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) is to support
adaptation and technology transfer projects and programs that: are country
FRAMED FROM IUCN.ORG
Q.375 Which among the following country is not the member of the “Mangroves for The Future” ?
- A) Cambodia
- B) Myanmar
- C) Laos
- D) Maldives
Ans. C
Mangroves for the Future (MFF)
Location:
Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles,
Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam
Outreach countries: Malaysia
Dialogue countries: Kenya and Tanzania
Duration: Established in 2006, MFF is currently in its third phase (2015 – 2018).
Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the
vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill
Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and
strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN (International
Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) developed Mangroves
for the Future in 2006. Since then, MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners, plus a
growing number of countries. At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report* at the United Nations in
New York in April 2009, Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking
developments of the post-tsunami period.
Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal
ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a
platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are
addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated
ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal
communities.
Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem,
such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, seagrass and wetlands.
FRAMED FROM The Hindu
Q.374 Which among the following is/are classified under the Third Generation Vaccines ?
- DTP vaccine
- DNA Vaccine
- Polio Vaccine
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
DTP vaccine – Second generation Vaccine
DNA Vaccine- Third generation Vaccine
Polio Vaccine- First generation Vaccine
DNA vaccination is a technique for protecting against disease by injection with genetically engineered
DNA so cells directly produce an antigen, producing a protective immunological response. DNA vaccines
have potential advantages over conventional vaccines, including the ability to induce a wider range of
immune response types.
Several DNA vaccines are available for veterinary use. Currently no DNA vaccines have been approved for
human use. Research is investigating the approach for viral, bacterial and parasitic diseases in humans,
as well as for several cancers.
Applications
No DNA vaccines have been approved for human use in the United States. Few experimental trials have
evoked a response strong enough to protect against disease and the technique’s usefulness remains to be
proven in humans. A veterinary DNA vaccine to protect horses from West Nile virus has been approved.
First-Generation Vaccines. Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are identified in the first generation,
which use a primary method in their production. Attenuated pathogens, full organisms or inactivated
bacterial toxin, which are effectively immunogenic, are used in making these vaccines.
2nd Generation Vaccines:-
The second generation vaccines were created in order to minimize the risks of having the pathogen
revert to a dangerous form.
The way these vaccines work is that they do not contain the whole organism, but rather subunits.
Subunits may consist of the toxins that the pathogen create (if they are bacterial). Another example of
subunit vaccines are those that only contain protein sections of the pathogen, such as an acellular
form.
A great example of a 2nd generation vaccine is DTaP. The vaccine contains diptheria toxoid, tetanus
toxoid, pertussis toxoid, as well as the acellular version of pertussis.
As with the issues with the 1st generation of vaccines, the 2nd generation vaccines can generate
antibody response and T-helper response, but AGAIN, no T-Killer response.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS
Q.373 Which among the following is/are the examples of The Near Field Communication ?
- Public transport card readers
- Smart phones
- Touch payment terminals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices,
one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing
them within 4 cm (1.6 in) of each other.[1]
NFC devices are used in contactless payment systems, similar to those used in credit cards and
electronic ticket smartcards and allow mobile payment to replace or supplement these systems. This is
sometimes referred to as NFC/CTLS (Contactless) or CTLS NFC. NFC is used for social networking, for
sharing contacts, photos, videos or files.[2] NFC-enabled devices can act as electronic identity
documents and keycards.[3] NFC offers a low-speed connection with simple setup that can be used to
bootstrap more capable wireless connections.
FRAMED FROM SHANKAR ENVIRONMENT
Q.372 With respect to the Global Tiger Forum (GTF) , consider the following statements :
- It is an international symposium to save Tigers in the world with support of South Asian Countries
- Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
GTF is an intergovernmental body to undertake worldwide campaign & a common programme to save tigers in
the world.
International Symposium on Tiger held at New Delhi during February 1993 , adopted a Delhi declaration
on Tiger conservation .
Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world
FRAMED FROM MAJID HUSSAIN’S INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
Q.371 Consider the following :
- Jai Samand Lake : Largest Artificial lake
- Pulicat lake : Has a largest number of islands within
- Vembanad lake : Largest Kayals
Which among the above is/are correctly matched ?
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Explanation :
1.Kolleru lake has the largest number of islands within. Kolleru lake is formed between deltas of Godavari
& Krishna rivers.
Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and forms
the largest shallow freshwater[3] lake in Asia, 15 kilometers away from the city of Eluru. Kolleru is
located between Krishna and Godavari deltas.[4] Kolleru spans into two districts – Krishna and West
Godavari. The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammilerustreams, and is
connected to the Krishna and Godavari irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor irrigation canals.
This lake is a major tourist attraction. Many birds migrate here in winter, such as Siberian crane, ibis,
and painted storks. The lake was an important habitat for an estimated 20 million resident and migratory
birds, including the grey or spot-billed pelican (Pelecanus philippensis). The lake was declared as a
wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and designated a
wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention. The
wildlife sanctuary covers an area of 308 km2.
Egrets, grey herons, painted storks and black-headed ibises gathering in thousands at Kolleru Lake,
Andhra Pradesh, India.
Kolleru Lake under Ramsar Convention (allowing local communities (Here: Vaddi Community) to continue their
occupation of culture fish and caught fish) covers 90,100 hectares (222,600 acres) and Kolleru Lake under
Wildlife Sanctuary covers 166,000 acres (67,200 ha)
2.Pulicat lake :
Pulicat Lagoon is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake. Pulicat Lagoon
is considered to be the second largest brackish water body in India measuring 759* km2. The Lagoon is
one the three important wetlands to attract North-East Monsoon rain clouds during October to December
season to Tamil Nadu. The lagoon comprises the following regions, which adds up 759 km2 according to
Andhra Pradesh Forest Department*: 1) Pulicat Lake (Tamil Nadu-TN & Andhra Pradesh-AP) 2) Marshy/Wetland
Land Region (AP) 3) Venadu Reserve Forest (AP) 4) Pernadu Reserve Forest (AP) The lagoon was cut across
in the middle the Sriharikota Link Road, which divided the water body into lake and marshy land. The
lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake
from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre.[1] Major part of the lake comes
under Nellore district of Andhra pradesh.
- Vembanad lake:
Vembanad (Vembanad Kayal or Vembanad Kol) is the longest lake in India,[1] and the largest lake in the
state of Kerala. Spanning several districts in the state of Kerala, it is known as Vembanadu Lake in
Kottayam, Punnamada Lake in Kuttanad and Kochi Lake in Kochi. Several groups of small islands including
Vypin, Mulavukad, Vallarpadam, Willingdon Island are located in the Kochi Lake portion. Kochi Port is
built around the Willingdon Island and the Vallarpadam island.
The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is conducted in a portion of the lake. High levels of pollution have been
noticed at certain hotspots of the Vembanad backwaters. Government of India has identified the Vembanad
wetland under National Wetlands Conservation Programme.
- Jai Samand Lake:
Dhebar Lake (also known as Jaisamand Lake) is India’s second-largest artificial lake, after Govind
Ballabh Pant Sagar.[1] It is located in the Udaipur District of Rajasthan State in western India.
It has an area of 87 km2 (34 sq mi) when full, and was created in the 17th century, when Rana Jai Singh
of Udaipur built a marble dam across the Gomati River. It is about 45.0 km (28.0 mi) from the district
headquarters of Udaipur. When first built, it was the largest artificial lake in the world. The
surrounding Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary around Dhebar Lake can be reached by the state highway to
Banswara from Udaipur. It is about 27.0 km (16.8 mi) from Parsad (A village on National Highway No. 8).
Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary protects about 162.0 square kilometres (16,200 ha), mostly teakforest, on
the shores of Dhebar Lake. The lake has three islands measuring from 10 to 40 acres
(40,000 to 162,000 m2) each. The Dhebar Lake Marble Dam is 300.0 m (984.3 ft) long and is a part of
the “Heritage Monuments of India”. The dam also has the Hawa Mahal Palace, winter Capital of the
erstwhile Maharanas of Mewar.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -MAY 2018
Q.370 With reference to the CLOUD ACT, consider the following statements :
- It has been passed by the U.S. Congress very recently to make artificial rain by spraying clouds with substances like
Silver Iodide
2 US has enacted in 2018 by passing the Consolidated Appropriations Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Cloud act –
- The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act, passed by the U.S. Congress earlier
this year, seeks to de-monopolise control over data from U.S. authorities.
- The law will for the first time allow tech companies to share data directly with certain
foreign governments. This, however, requires an executive agreement between the U.S. and the foreign
country certifying that the state has robust privacy protections, and respect for due process and the
rule of law.
- Before this Cloud Act, an Indian officer investigating would have to raise a request for data
to the U.S. government where it is stored.
How CLOUD act impacts law enforcement in India :-
- Timely access to electronic data for police is required to prevent, mitigate or prosecute even
a routine crime. With the enactment of the CLOUD Act, an Indian officer for the purposes of an
investigation will no longer have to make a request to the U.S. government but can approach the company
directly.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018
Q.369 Which among the following is/are the expected benefits to a country by signing the pact of Duqm
port in Oman ?
- Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass
- It has a special economic zone where 2.5 $ billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian
companies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
It has a special economic zone where 1.8 $ billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian
companies
Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass.It is also near
the Chabahar port of Iran
FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018
Q.368 What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘European Bank for Reconstruction &
Development’ ?
- Membership would provide access to the technical & financial assistance of the bank related to the development of the
private sector
- Co-financing opportunities, access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membership
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A) 1 only
- B) 2 only
- C) Both 1 & 2
- D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
Membership would provide access to the technical assistance & sectoral knowledge of the bank related to
the development of the private sector
Co-financing opportunities, access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membership
Explanation:
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is an international financial institution
founded in 1991. As a multilateral developmental investment bank, the EBRD uses investment as a tool to
build market economies. Initially focused on the countries of the former Eastern Bloc it expanded to
support development in more than 30 countries from central Europe to central Asia. Similar to other
multilateral development banks, the EBRD has members from all over the world (North America, Africa,
Asia and Australia, see below), with the biggest shareholder being the United States, but only lends
regionally in its countries of operations. Headquartered in London, the EBRD is owned by 69 countries
and two EU institutions, 69th being Indiarecently in July 2018. Despite its public sector shareholders,
it invests in private enterprises, together with commercial partners.
The EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank (EIB), which is owned by EU member
states and is used to support EU policy. EBRD is also distinct from the Council of Europe Development
Bank (CEB).
FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018
Q.367 STARLINK refers to :
- A) It is a research & development project developed by Google X to provide internet access to rural & remote areas
- B) It is the solar powered drone launched by facebook to provide internet access to four billion people around the world
- C) Any type of drone that can be controlled by the Microwave signals of high wavelength
- D) It is the planned constellation of satellites that would provide high speed global internet connection
Ans. D
Starlink is a satellite constellation development project underway by SpaceX,[1] to develop a low-cost,
high-performance satellite bus and requisite customer ground transceivers to implement a new space-based
Internet communication system.[2][3] By 2017, SpaceX submitted regulatory filings to launch nearly
12,000 satellites to orbit by the mid-2020s.[4]SpaceX also plans to sell satellites that use a satellite
bus that may be used for military[5], scientific or exploratory purposes.[6] In November 2018 SpaceX
received FCC approval to deploy 7,518 broadband satellites, in addition to the 4,425 satellites that
were approved in March 2018.
Development began in 2015, and prototype test-flight satellites were launched on 22 February 2018.
Initial operation of the constellation could begin in 2020 with satellite deployment beginning mid 2019.
The SpaceX satellite development facility in Redmond, Washington, houses the research and development
operations for the satellite Internet project.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018
Q.366 Which among the following sites have been identified for the development of Water Aerodromes ?
- Wular lake
- Sabarmati river front
- Chilika lake
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Chilika lake IN Orissa, Gujarat’s Sardar Sarovar Dam , Sabarmati river front have been identified for
the development of Water Aerodromes
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018
Q.365 Which among the following products have been classified into Minor Forest Products ?
- Tamarind
- Sandalwood
- Bamboo
- Cane
- Fuel & Timber
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4,5
- B) 2,4,5
- C) Only 2 & 5
- D) 1,3,4
Ans. D
Major Forest Produce and Minor Forest Products. The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood, Sandalwood,
Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber.
The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind, curry leaf, Tendu Patta, gallnut, Cane,
Soapnut, tree moss and now Bamboo also.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018
Q.364 Consider the following :
- Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper
- Macro encapsulation device for treatment of Diabetes
- Smartphone based Camera Sensor
Which among the above projects have been developed under the Imprint-2 Initiative ?
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1
Ans. B
Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper, Smartphone based Camera Sensor- are the projects of IMPRINT INITIATIVE
For details of the projects , open the link :
https://imprint-india.org/projects/approved-projects-under-implementation
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018
Q.363 Which among the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status ?
- Blue pottery of Jaipur
- Tirupati ladoos
- Mahabaleshwar Strawberry
- Nagpur Orange
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,4
- B) 2 & 4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.362 With reference to the news what is Blockchain Bond ?
- A) It is the new debt instrument issued by World Bank by using ledger technology
- B) It is a type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling
- C) Republic of Seychelles has launched the Bond, a novel financing initiative which taps into capital markets to fund ocean-related environmental projects
- D) It is the bond issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees, rather than the local currency
Ans. A
The World Bank is turning to blockchain to help it raise money.
The international lender is planning to issue what it says is the world’s first global blockchainbond, a notable mainstream endorsement of the emerging technology.
Blockchain is best known as the technology underpinning bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies. It serves as a digital record of financial transactions.
The World Bank has hired Commonwealth Bank of Australia (CBAUF) to manage the bond, which is expected to raise as much as 100 million Australian dollars ($73 million).
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.361 Which of the following best describes the term “Mobilise Your City” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is an initiative to support three Indian cities to reduce Green House Gas emissions
- B) It is a part of Swacch Bharat Mission to make Indian cities clean
- C) It is the Heat Action Plan adopted in Climate Change Conference to keep global average temperature below 20 C
- D) It is an initiative to support Indian cities to reduce atmospheric pollution as a part of health initiative
Ans. A
India and France sign an implementation agreement on “MOBILISE YOUR CITY” (MYC)
European Union agrees to Euro 3.5 million for investments and technical assistance within the Mobilise Your City (MYC)
programme in India. MYC aims at supporting three pilot cities viz. Nagpur, Kochi and Ahmedabad for reduction of Green
House Gas (GHG) emissions related to urban transport.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.360 With reference to the PISA (Programme For International Student Assessment) , consider the following statements :
- PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by UNICEF (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund )
- The test is carried out once in every two years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by OECD
The test is carried out once in every three years
The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) is a worldwide study by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in member and non-member nations intended to evaluate educational systems by measuring 15-year-old school pupils’ scholastic performance on mathematics, science, and reading.
It was first performed in 2000 and then repeated every three years. Its aim is to provide comparable data with a view to enabling countries to improve their education policies and outcomes. It measures problem solving and cognition.
The 2015 version of the test was published on 6 December 2016
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.359 With reference to O-Smart scheme consider the following statements :
- It is the Earth Ministry’s scheme to address Ocean development activities
- The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1700 crores
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1623 crores
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.358 Which among the following is/are modified Operational Guidelines for Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana ?
- Only Perennial horticulture crops are included on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY
- Farmers will be paid 11 % interest by insurance companies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
-Farmers will be paid 12 % interest by insurance companies
-State Governments will have to pay 12 % interest for delay in release of state share of subsidy
-It includes Perennial horticulture crops on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY
-It provides add on coverage for crop loss
-Release of upfront premium subsidy
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.357 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana, consider the following statements :
- It is a life insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years
- The annual premium of Rs.12 will be paid by the Union government
- The benefit includes Rs. 2 lakhs in case of death due to any cause
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana is a accident insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a life insurance which includes age between 18 to 70 years
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs.12 will be paid by the Union government
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs.330 will be paid by the Union government
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.356 Which among the following are mandatory to mention on the label of the food items as per regulations of Food Safety & Standards Regulations Act,2018 ?
1.Trans fats
- Sugar
- Salt
- Genetically Engineered Goods / ingredients derived from GMO
- Folic acid
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) 1,4,5
- B) 1,2,3,4
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. B
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) on August 17, 2018 constituted a group of experts from health and nutrition sector to look into the issue of food labelling.
The expert panel will be headed by B Sesikeran, former director of National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) and comprises Hemalatha and Dr Nikhil Tandon. The panel will study in detail the concerns of the industry and make recommendations.
The announcement regarding the constitution of the Committee was made by FSSAI CEO Pawan Kumar Agarwal while addressing a national consultation on the draft regulation on food labelling organised by the CUTS International.
Agarwal also made it clear that Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) will go ahead with the labelling
norms even if there is no full consensus on the matter after the panel’s suggestions.
In April 2018, the FSSAI had come out with the draft of ‘Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations,
2018’ that propose mandatory red-label marking on packaged food products containing high levels of fat, sugar and salt.
However, for now, the government has put on hold these draft regulations following the concerns raised by stakeholders.
Draft provisions of Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018
- The draft regulations suggest for mandatory declaration by packaged food manufacturers about nutritional information such as calories, total fat, trans fat, sugar and salt per serve on the front of the pack.
- The draft pitches for a colour code, proposes that the high fats such as sugar and salt, trans-fat and sodium content should be coloured as ‘red’, if the value of energy from total sugar or fat is more than 10 percent of the total energy in the 100 grams or 100 ml of the product.
- The colour coding will make it easier for consumers to know about the nutritional value of food products and will help them make choices as per their requirements.
- It also makes mandatory to label food stuffs as ‘Contains GMO/Ingredients derived from GMO’, if the items contain 5 percent or more Genetically Engineered (GE) ingredients.
- The nutritional information should also be provided in the form of bar code.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.355 Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch , that sometimes seen in news :
- It is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean
- It is located from 135°E to 155°W
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
The Great Pacific garbage patch, also described as the Pacific trash vortex, is a gyre of marine debris particles in the
central North Pacific Ocean. It is located roughly from 135°W to 155°W and 35°N to 42°N.The collection of plastic,
floating trash halfway between Hawaii and California extends over an indeterminate area of widely varying range depending
on the degree of plastic concentration used to define it.
The patch is characterized by exceptionally high relative pelagic concentrations of plastic, chemical sludge and other
debris that have been trapped by the currents of the North Pacific Gyre.[3] Despite the common public image of islands of
floating rubbish, its low density (4 particles per cubic meter) prevents detection by satellite imagery, or even by
casual boaters or divers in the area. It consists primarily of an increase in suspended, often microscopic, particles in
the upper water column.
The patch is not easily seen from the sky, because the plastic is dispersed over a large area. Researchers from The Ocean
Cleanup project claimed that the patch covers 1.6 million square kilometers. The plastic concentration is estimated to be
up to 100 kilograms per square kilometer in the center, going down to 10 kilograms per square kilometer in the outer
parts of the patch. An estimated 80,000 metric tons of plastic inhabit the patch, totaling 1.8 trillion pieces. 92% of
the mass in the patch comes from objects larger than 0.5 centimeters.
Research indicates that the patch is rapidly accumulating.
A similar patch of floating plastic debris is found in the Atlantic Ocean, called the North Atlantic garbage patch
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.354 Consider the following statements with reference to the Heritage Irrigation Structures , that sometimes seen in news :
- These structures have been created to ease irrigation by creating partition between the acidic & alkaline soil
- This scheme has excluded old operational irrigation structures
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
At the 63rd meeting of International Executive Council (IEC) held at Adelaide, Australia on 28 June 2012, President Gao
Zhanyi suggested that a process for recognition of the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage
Sites as recognized by UNESCO shall be initiated. Accordingly, a Task Team comprising of the following members, was set
up to work out objectives, guidelines and procedures to select the historical irrigation structures. The Scheme was
discussed during the meeting of WG-HIST at 65th IEC meeting. The members suggested changes in the scope of the Scheme,
The present Scheme has been revised and updated to include both the old operational irrigation structures as well as
structures that have primarily archival value.
It is proposed that a historical irrigation and/or drainage structure fulfilling the criterion laid down in this document
shall be recognized as “Heritage Irrigation Structure” (HIS). The nomination forms received by 30 June every year will be
processed together and presented to the following Executive Council meeting after due processing.
Nominations are invited from ICID National Committees for selection of “World Heritage Irrigation Structures” (WHIS) that
includes both old operational irrigation structures as well as those having an archival value. A Task Team is set up
every year to select historical drainage/drainage structures as received from various National Committees (NCs) to give
recognition to the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites (as recognized by UNESCO).
National Committee can nominate more than one structure, using separate nomination form for each. Associated Members and
non-member countries can nominate their structures through the neighboring active national committees or by submitting
directly to the ICID Central Office.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.353 Which of the following best describes “MOVE” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by Niti Ayog to make Indian cities pollution free.
- B) It is an Intergovernmental agreement on the National Redress Scheme for Institutional Child Sexual Abuse
- C) It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by UNFCCC between the Commonwealth and the States on environment issues
- D) It is an inter governmental agreement for the promotion of political & economic relations with the ASEAN
Ans. A
To showcase innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility, NITI Aayog is proud to host the first Move
Summit 2018. In New Delhi on 7th and 8th September 2018, stakeholders from across the sectors of mobility and
transportation will gather to co-create a public interest framework to revolutionize transport. Together, government,
industry, academia, civil society and media will set the base for a transport system which is safe; clean, shared and
connected; and affordable, accessible and inclusive.
The Move Summit will address these challenges through two major channels:
THE CORE SUMMIT AND PARALLEL EVENTS. It will help leverage a number of unique features of India’s mobility ecosystem:
(a) Tremendous potential for a fundamental shift;
(b) Low lock-in-effect;
(c) Scale and size;
(d) Frugal innovation; and
(e) Globally-recognized technological prowess.
The Move Summit will seek to integrate India’s efforts around sustainable development, urbanization, clean energy and more, through the unique lens of mobility.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.352 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, consider the following statements :
- Institutional treatment is the part of this Scheme
- It will cover over 10 crore people for secondary & tertiary care hospitalization
- Members of the family should not be more than 5 to be eligible for the scheme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
1st statement : Institution treatment means a hospital, nursing facility, or other. It is a fabricated statement
3rd statement : It is also wrong. It is not the feature of this scheme.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), under Ayushman Bharat umbrella
at Ranchi, Jharkhand. The scheme aims to provide annual health insurance cover of Rs 5 lakh to 10.74 crore beneficiary
families i.e. over 50 crore beneficiaries across India. It is touted as world’s largest healthcare scheme that will serve
beneficiary population that equals 27-28 European countries and almost equal to population of Canada, Mexico and US put
together. The scheme will become operational from September 25, 2018 i.e. on birth anniversary of Deendayal Upadhyay.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018
Q.351 Which of the following best describes “RIMPAC” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) It is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shipping
- B) It is the world’s largest military exercise between United States & South Korea
- C) It is a naval ship that is built and primarily intended for naval warfare
- D) It is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise administered by the United States Navy’s pacific fleet
Ans. D
RIMPAC, the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise. RIMPAC is held
bienniallyduring June and July of even-numbered years from Honolulu, Hawaii. It is hosted and administered by the United
States Navy’s Pacific Fleet, headquartered at Pearl Harbor, in conjunction with the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and
Hawaii National Guard forces under the control of the Governor of Hawaii. The US invites military forces from the Pacific
Rim and beyond to participate. With RIMPAC the United States Pacific Command seeks to enhance interoperability among
Pacific Rim armed forces, ostensibly as a means of promoting stability in the region to the benefit of all participating
nations. Described by the US Navy as a unique training opportunity that helps participants foster and sustain the
cooperative relationships that are critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security on the world’s oceans.
RIMPAC 2018.
On 23 May 2018, the Pentagon announced that it had “disinvited” China because of recent militarization of islands in the
South China Sea, after China had announced in January that it had been invited.The PRC has previously attended
RIMPAC 2014 & 2016.
On 30 May 2018, the US Navy announced that the following navies would take part in the exercise;
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018
Q.350 With reference to the “Polargap Project” ,consider the following statements :
- It is an international mission to capture data about the Earth’s electrical & magnetic field
- This project is largely funded by the World bank
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
PolarGAP is an ambitious international mission to capture new and critical data about the Earth’s global gravity field.
Innovative radar systems and Lidar technologies will also be deployed from Twin Otter aircraft to fill the ‘data gap’ in
measurements of surface elevation over the South Pole region south of 83.5°.
Two earth observing satellite missions (GOCE and CryoSat 2) mounted by the European Space Agency (ESA) revolutionised
scientists’ ability to ‘map’ the Earth’s global gravity field and monitor how Earth’s ice fields are responding to global
change. However, because GOCE’s orbit did not cross the Poles there is a data gap at the South Pole.
The PolarGAP project will collect new gravity data and combine them with datasets from other Antarctic missions to build
the first accurately constrained global gravity model. This is essential as global gravity data provide unique information
on mass distribution and transport in the Earth System, linked to processes and changes in the Solid Earth, hydrology,
cryosphere, oceans and atmosphere. Key applications of gravity data include geodetic studies (levelling and mapping),
navigation (GPS/GLONASS) and satellite orbit planning.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JULY 2018
Q.349 Recently environment minister inaugurates advanced system of air quality “SAFAR”. With reference to this project
consider the following statements :
- It will monitor all the weather parameters like temperature, wind speed & wind direction
- The system will also monitor existence of Benzene, Methane & Toluene
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Science& Technology, Earth Sciences; Environment, Forest & Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of-
the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting)at ChandniChowkin
Delhi today.
The giant true colour LED display gives out real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding alongwith
72-hour advance forecast.
The system, first of its kind in the country, was developed indigenously in record time by Indian Institute of Tropical
Meteorology, Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD).
The minister said based on the Air Quality Index on a particular day, Health advisory and related precaution will be
notified to prepare citizens well in advance. Dr. Harsh Vardhan, further added that in addition to monitoring and
forecasting of regular air quality and weather parameters, the ChandniChowk air quality station will also measure sun’s
UV-Index and will provide measurement of online automatic ultrafine particles PM1 and Mercury, both of which have direct
relevance to human health. Based on UVI, skin advisories will be issued on display.
“Our mission model project SAFAR is implemented in four cities of India – Delhi, Pune, Mumbai and Ahmedabad as an
operational service. Accordingto a preliminary economic assessment of the benefits of the system, if 5% of people
suffering from air-pollution related diseases take advantage of the advisories and precautionsin Delhi alone, it would
result in a saving of nearly Rs. 2,500 crores in terms of health-related cost benefit,” said Dr Harsh Vardhan, addressing
a large gathering at Town Hall in ChandniChowk.
The system will be an integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi and will
strengthen the existing air quality network of SAFAR, Central Pollution Control Board and Delhi Pollution Control
Committee.
SAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes. It will also lead to
better understanding of linkages among emissions, weather, pollution and climate. It will monitor all weather parameters
like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed and wind direction.
In addition to regular air quality parameters like PM2.5, PM10, Sulfur Dioxide, Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide,
the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene.
Besides health, SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture, aviation,
infrastructure, disaster management skill, tourism and many others, which directly or indirectly get affected by air
quality and weather.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.348 Which of the following best describes “Global Green Bond Partnership” sometimes seen in news ?
- A) This partnership will spread catchment area over 68.9 sq km to provide water for irrigation to cities, states regions.
- B) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual
scientists to increase forest cover .
- C) This partnership will support efforts of cities, states regions , corporations, private companies to accelerate
issuance of green bonds
- D) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual
scientists to provide precious water for paddy crops
Ans. C
The Global Green Bond Partnership (GGBP) launched at the Global Climate Action Summit (GCAS). This new partnership will
support efforts of sub-national entities such as cities, states, and regions, corporations and private companies, and
financial institutions to accelerate the issuance of green bonds.
The founding members of the Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP include the World Bank, IFC – a member of the World Bank
Group, Amundi, European Investment Bank, Climate Bonds Initiative, Ceres, ICLEI – Local Governments for Sustainability,
Global Covenant of Mayors for Climate & Energy (GCoM) and the Low Emissions Development Strategies Global Partnership
(LEDS GP).
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.347 With reference to the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme, consider the following statements :
- It is proposed to cover all the oil seeds for which minimum support price is notified
- It does not involve any physical procurement of the crops
- All the payments will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The Niti Aayog has released a three-year agenda for the Centre. Of the several things it has touched upon, one is
agriculture, with a focus on doubling farmers’ income. The think-tank has recommended reforms in the APMC Act and tenancy
laws and tweaks to the eNAM (electronic National Agriculture Market). It has also suggested ‘Price Deficiency Payment’
system to address the gaps in Minimum Support Price (MSP) based procurement of crops.
What is it?
Under Price Deficiency Payment, farmers are proposed to be compensated for the difference between the government-
announced MSPs for select crops and their actual market prices. For crops such as rice and wheat where it is effective
now, MSP announcements will continue. For other targeted crops, price deficiency payments will be made. However, it has
to be noted that there may be a cap on the extent to which the Centre will bridge the gap between MSP and market price.
Niti Aayog has said that the farmer may be entitled to the difference up to say, 10 per cent. To avail this benefit, each
farmer would have to register with the nearest APMC mandi and report the total area sown. The subsidy may be paid via
Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) into the farmer’s Aadhaar-linked bank account.
Why is it important?
The key benefit from the price deficiency payment is that it will reduce the need for the government to actually procure
food crops, transport and store them and then dispose of them under PDS. The difference between the support and market
prices can instead simply be paid in cash to the farmer. Price deficiency payment can also keep India’s bill on food
subsidies under check, believes Niti Aayog. India’s food subsidy schemes have frequently come under the WTO scanner.
Even in the meeting held in March this year, there were questions raised on the minimum support price programmes for
wheat, sugarcane and pulses, by the US, EU and Australia.
These countries see India’s procurement subsidies as trade-distorting. In recent years, the government has been seeing
the accumulation of large food grain stocks in its godowns over and above the buffer requirement. This entails storage
and wastage costs that add on to the subsidy bill.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.346 Recently Government has hiked customs duties of several items to curb imports of non-essential goods. Which among the
following items are exempted under the custom duty ?
- E-cigarettes
- Aviation turbine fuel
- Decorative sheets
- Beeds & Bangles
Which of the options given above is/are correct ?
- A) 2,3,4
- B) Only 1
- C) 1 & 3
- D) Only 4
Ans. B
Custom Duty
S.no Item
- Air Conditioner
- Refrigerators
- Washing Machines (Less than 10kg)
4 Compressor for ACs, Refrigerators
- Speakers
- Footwear
- Radial car tyres
- Non-industrial diamonds
- Diamonds (semi-processed)
- Lab grown diamonds
- Cut, polished coloured gem stones
- Jewellery- precious metal or metal clad with precious metal
13 Goldsmith or Silversmith wares – precious metal or metal clad with precious metal
- Shower bath, bath, sink, wash basin of plastic
- Plastic items- boxes, case, containers, bottles, insulated ware
- Kitchenware, tableware, household items of plastic
- Other plastic items- office stationary, fitting for furniture, decorative sheets, statuettes, beads and bangles
- Trunks, suitcases, brief cases, travel bags and other bags
- Aviation turbine fuel
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.345 With reference to the Price Support scheme, consider the following statements :
- Physical procurement of the oilseeds , pulses & Copra will be done by NAFED & Food Corporation of India
- Procurement expenditure & losses due to procurement will be borne by the State government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans.A
Procurement expenditure & losses due to procurement will be borne by the Union government as per norms
Physical procurement of the oilseeds , pulses & Copra will be done by Central Nodal agencies with the proactive role of
the State governments.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.344 India has recently signed COMCASA Agreement . What is/are the consequence/consequences for India by signing the
agreement ?
- It allows the India to transfer electronic systems & ensure secrecy of its C4ISR systems
- By signing the agreement India would have to buy American Military equipment
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
-It allows the US to transfer high tech electronic systems & ensure secrecy of its C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications
, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance) systems.
-By signing the agreement, It is not mean that India would have to necessarily buy American Military equipment.
Explanation :
It is one of the three foundational defence pacts that needs to be signed by a country in order to obtain high-tech
military hardware from the US. Before COMCASA, India had signed only one of these agreements – Logistics Exchange
Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) – in 2016. The two countries are yet to begin talks on the third agreement – Basic
Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA).
- The agreement will give Indian military access to function on high-end secured and encrypted communication equipment
which are installed on American platforms obtained by Indian Armed Forces. These platforms include C-130 J, C-17, P-8I
aircraft, and Apache and Chinook helicopters.
- The act is usually known as the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). But, it
was changed to COMCASA to signify its India-specific alterations.
- It will also provide a legal framework for the transfer of encrypted communication security equipment from the US to
India. It is believed to be safer and more secure than the system that India uses right now. “Signing of Communications
Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) will enable India to access advanced technologies from USA,” Defence
Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said while addressing the media.
- The agreement was pending for almost ten years. One of the major reasons for this was the fear that India may
compromise its operational independence. Critics had also pointed out that the agreement could jeopardise India’s
established military ties with Russia and access to their weapons systems.
The agreement is also of political significance with the general elections scheduled to take place next year. In 2016,
the BJP government had to face a lot of criticism from the opposition parties for signing LEMOA.
These agreements and Donald Trump administration’s decision to give India STA-1 status (Strategic Trade Authorization-1)
shows the country’s importance in the US strategic calculus.
“We’ll be meeting PM Modi on how to advance relationship in the new era of growth under his leadership and President
Trump. We had many productive and forward thinking conversations on our bilateral relationship and our shared future,”
Pompeo said after ‘2+2’ talks.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018
Q.343 Currently India is a member of which among the following organizations / groups ?
- Missile Technology Control Regime
- Australia Group
- Wassenaar Arrangement
- Nuclear Suppler Group
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A) Only 2 & 3
- B) 2,3,4
- C) Only 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Some countries are opposing the Indian entry into NSG because India has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
Q.342 With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which among the following is NOT correct?
- A) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households
- B) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
- C) The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the Yojana
- D) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel
Ans. B
– The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a welfare program of the government of India, launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2016.
The stated objective of the program is providing 50,000,000 LPG connections to women from families below the poverty line.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.341 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- COP 11 : Minimata convention on mercury
- COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change
- COP 1 : Montreal Protocol
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. B
COP-4 conference in Buenos,
COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change
>COP 11 : Montreal , It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005, in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. It was the first Meeting of the Parties (CMP 1) to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997. It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever.
>COP1 : Minimata convention on mercury
FRAMED FROM MAP SECTION
Q.340 Consider the following :
- Rajpipla range : Rajasthan
- Suket hills : Himachal Pradesh
- Kali river : Delhi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. B
Rajpipla range : Gujarat
Kali river : Source : Doon valley in Uttarakhand
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.339 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the petroleum Panchayat yojna ?
- It has replaced Pradhan Mantri Ujwal Yojana to deal with issue of safe use of LPG
- It was launched in 2015
- Availability of refill cylinders is one of the key feature of this scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
It was launched in 23rd September 2017
It is backup scheme to existing Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana .
LPG Panchayat will serve as an interactive platform between those who received LPG cylinders under PMUY. One panchayat will have around 100 LPG customers of nearby areas. The panchayats discuss issues such as safe practices, quality of service provided by distributors and availability of refill cylinders.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.338 Which among the following species is/are the examples of the Waterfowl ?
- Wood Sandpiper
- Little cormorant
- Painted Stork
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The most common waterfowl are :
Gadwall, shoveler, common teal, cotton teal, tufted duck, knob-billed duck, little cormorant, great cormorant, Indian shag, ruff, painted stork, white spoonbill, Asian open-billed stork, oriental ibis, darter, common sandpiper, wood sandpiper and green sandpiper. The sarus crane, with its spectacular courtship dance, is also found here
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.337 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Special Drawing Rights ?
- These are the foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the World Bank
- Private parties are restricted to hold or use them
- South African Rand & British pound have been added to the XDR basket effectively from October 1, 2016
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
Special drawing rights (ISO 4217 currency code XDR,[1] also abbreviated SDR) are supplementary foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The XDR is the unit of account for the IMF, and is not a currency per se.[2] XDRs instead represent a claim to currency held by IMF member countries for which they may be exchanged.[3] The XDR was created in 1969 to supplement a shortfall of preferred foreign-exchange reserve assets, namely gold and the U.S. dollar.[3]
XDRs are allocated to countries by the IMF.[3] Private parties do not hold or use them.[4]
The amount of XDRs in existence was around XDR 21.4 billion in August 2009. During the global financial crisis of 2009, an additional XDR 182.6 billion were allocated to “provide liquidity to the global economic system and supplement member countries’ official reserves”. By October 2014, the amount of XDRs in existence was XDR 204 billion.[5]
The value of the XDR is based on a basket of key international currencies reviewed by IMF every five years.[3]
The weights assigned to each currency in the XDR basket are adjusted to take into account their current prominence in terms of international trade and national foreign exchange reserves.[3] In the review conducted in November 2015, the IMF decided that the Renminbi (Chinese yuan) would be added to the basket effective October 1, 2016.[6] From that date, the XDR basket now consists of the following five currencies: U.S. dollar 41.73%, Euro 30.93%, Renminbi (Chinese yuan) 10.92%, Japanese yen 8.33%, British pound 8.09%
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.336 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana ?
- it is an annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic records only
- Philately as a hobby is an important component of this scheme
- Children must be between 10 to 18 years of age to be eligible for this scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana
Minister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched a Pan India scholarship program for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to increase the reach of Philately.
Under the scheme of SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby), it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive selection process in all postal circles.
Briefing the media after the launch of the scheme, Shri Sinha said that under the scheme, it is proposed to award 920 scholarships to students pursuing Philately as a hobby. Every Postal Circle will select a maximum of 40 scholarships representing 10 students each from Standard VI, VII, VIII & IX. The amount of Scholarship will be Rs. 6000/- per annum @ Rs. 500/- per month.
Philately is the hobby of collection and study of Postage stamps
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Q.335 Which among the following is/are the cryptocurrencies ?
- Litecoin
- Bitcoin
- Namecoin
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
cryptocurrencies, such as Litecoin, Namecoin and PPCoin.
The first cryptocurrency to capture the public imagination was Bitcoin, which was launched in 2009 by an individual or group known under the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto. As of September 2015, there were over 14.6 million bitcoins in circulation with a total market value of $3.4 billion. Bitcoin’s success has spawned a number of competing cryptocurrencies, such as Litecoin, Namecoin and PPCoin.
Cryptocurrencies make it easier to transfer funds between two parties in a transaction;
these transfers are facilitated through the use of public and private keys for security purposes.
These fund transfers are done with minimal processing fees, allowing users to avoid the steep fees charged by most banks and financial institutions for wire transfers
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Q.334 With reference to the news what are Bug Zappers ?
- A) It is is a bio-remediation technique to get rid of oil spill
- B) These are the fluorescent traps to eliminate bugs & small insects
- C) These are the tools or methods to reduce the greenhouse gases
- D) These are the Ultraviolet traps to eliminate various small flying insects
Ans. D
Ultraviolet traps called bug zappers are used to eliminate various small flying insects. They are attracted to the UV and are killed using an electric shock, or trapped once they come into contact with the device.
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Q.333 Which among the following are the migratory wetland species ?
- White-bellied Heron
- Siberian Crane
- Red-headed Vulture
- Spoon-billed Sandpiper
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 4
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 2 & 4
Ans. D
Migratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper.
Non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron.
Grassland species:Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing.
Forest species:Forest Owlet.
Scavengers: Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture, White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture. Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposes.
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Q.332 With reference to the CITES what are Appendix II species ?
- A) species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a species
- B) species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by trade
- C) species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, but may become so unless trade in specimens of such species
- D) Species that are preserved under the biosphere reserves to prevent their extinction
Ans. C
Appendix I : species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by trade
Appendix II : species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, but may become so unless trade in specimens of such species
Appendix III : species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a species
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Q.331 What does Hedge Fund means ?
- A) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
- B) Open ended funds that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors
- C) Start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
- D) Fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the country
Ans. B
Hedge Funds :
A hedge fund is an investment fund that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors and invests in a variety of assets, often with complex portfolio-construction and risk-management techniques.
It is administered by a professional investment management firm, and often structured as a limited partnership, limited liability company, or similar vehicle.
Hedge funds are generally distinct from mutual funds, as their use of leverage is not capped by regulators, and distinct from private equity funds, as the majority of hedge funds invest in relatively liquid assets
Hedge funds are made available only to certain sophisticated or accredited investors and cannot be offered or sold to the general public
Hedge funds are almost always open-ended and allow additions or withdrawals by their investors (generally on a monthly or quarterly basis).[1] The value of an investor’s holding is directly related to the fund net asset value.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.330 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Vernacular Press Act ?
- The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication.
- Final decision on the seditious news was to be determined by the Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Vernacular press act:
It was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies—notably, the opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
The act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then Viceroy of India, and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy’s Council on March 14, 1878.
The act excluded English-language publications as it was meant to control seditious writing in ‘publications in Oriental languages’ everywhere in the country, except for the South.
Lord Wellesley regulated the press again in 1799; according to which press had to show and get approval of the government before the publication of any manuscript including advertisement.
During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the “Gagging Act” had been passed by Lord Canning which sought to regulate the establishment of printing presses and to restrain the mad of printed mater.
All presses had to have a license from the government with distinction between publications in English and other regional languages. The Act also held that no printed material shall impugn the motives of the British Raj, tending to bring it hatred and contempt and exciting unlawful resistance to its orders.
At the time the Vernacular Press Act was passed, there were thirty five vernacular papers in Bengal, including the Amrita Bazar Patrika, the editor of which was one Sisir Kumar Ghose
The Vernacular Press Act stated that any magistrate or Commissioner of Police had the authority to call upon any printer or publisher of a newspaper to enter into a bond, undertaking not to print a certain kind of material, and could confiscate any printed material it deemed objectionable.
The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication.
What was seditious news was to be determined by the police, and not by the judiciary.
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Q.329 Who among the following is/are associated with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha ?
- G. SubramaniaIyer
- Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi
- P. Anandacharlu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha:
It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants’ legal rights.[1] [2] It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2, 1870
The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et al.
Many eminent personalities such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Hari Deshmukh, Maharshi Annasaheb Patwardhan,[5] etc. served as the Presidents of the organization
Madras Mahajan Sabha:
The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist GazuluLakshminarasu Chetty in 1849. This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbanded.
In May 1884., M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. SubramaniaIyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.328 Consider the following statements :
- Deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters enhances carbon sequestration.
- Biochar is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta
- Harvesting of Seeweed is done to generate electricity or as a replacement for natural gas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Carbon Sequestration
Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide.[1]
Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to mitigate or defer global warming.
It has been proposed as a way to slow the atmospheric and marine accumulation of greenhouse gases, which are released by burning fossil fuels
artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO
2 using subsurface saline aquifers, reservoirs, ocean water, aging oil fields, or other carbon sinks.
Carbon dioxide may be captured as a pure by-product in processes related to petroleum refining or from flue gases from power generation.[5] CO
2 sequestration includes the storage part of carbon capture and storage, which refers to large-scale, artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO
2 using subsurface saline aquifers, reservoirs, ocean water, aging oil fields, or other carbon sinks.
Biosequestration or carbon sequestration through biological processes affects the global carbon cycle.
Examples include major climatic fluctuations, such as the Azolla event, which created the current Arctic climate. Such processes created fossil fuels, as well as clathrate and limestone. By manipulating such processes, geoengineers seek to enhance sequestration.
Peat bogs are a very important carbon store.
Wetland soil is an important carbon sink; 14.5% of the world’s soil carbon is found in wetlands, while only 6% of the world’s land is composed of wetlands.
Ocean iron fertilization is an example of such a geoengineering technique.[23] Iron fertilization[24] attempts to encourage phytoplankton growth, which removes carbon from the atmosphere for at least a period of time.
Natural iron fertilisation events (e.g., deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters) can enhance carbon sequestration.
The iron rich feces causes phytoplankton to grow and take up more carbon from the atmosphere.
When the phytoplankton dies, some of it sinks to the deep ocean and takes the atmospheric carbon with it. By reducing the abundance of sperm whales in the Southern Ocean, whaling has resulted in an extra 200,000 tonnes of carbon remaining in the atmosphere each year’
Seaweed grows very fast and can theoretically be harvested and processed to generate biomethane, via Anaerobic Digestion to generate electricity, via Cogeneration/CHP or as a replacement for natural gas.
Ideal species for such farming and conversion include Laminaria digitata, Fucus serratus and Saccharina latissima
Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)
‘BECCS refers to biomass in power stations and boilers that use carbon capture and storage
Biochar is charcoal created by pyrolysis of biomass waste.
The resulting material is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.327 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the CITES ?
- CITES is the conservation agreement with the largest membership with 183 Parties
- It is legally binding on the Parties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN
It provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.
For many years CITES has been among the conservation agreements with the largest membership, with now 183 Parties.
CITES is legally binding on the Parties
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.326 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bronze icon of Nataraja ?
- The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs by around the 6th-century
- Torso movements are visible as the most common form of Shiva’s dance
- It typically shows Shiva dancing holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta
mudra
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
Bronze icon of Nataraja
Affiliation Shiva
Symbols
Agni
Texts
Anshumadbhed agama
Uttarakamika agama
The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs, as at the Ellora Caves and the Badami Caves, by around the 6th-century.[4][5]
Around the 10th century, it emerged in Tamil Nadu in its mature and best-known expression in Chola bronzes, of various heights typically less than four feet,[6] some over.[7]
The Nataraja reliefs have been identified in historic artwork from many parts of South Asia, in southeast Asia such as in Bali, Cambodia, and in central Asia
It typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses, holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudra, the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya (fear not) mudra while pointing to a Sutratext, and the back hand holding a musical instrument usually a damaru.[6]
His body, fingers, ankles, neck, face, head, ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items, which vary with historic period and region.[1][11]
He is surrounded by a ring of flames, standing on a lotus pedestal, lifting his left leg (or in rare cases, the right leg) and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf (Apasmara[2] or Muyalaka) who symbolizes ignorance
The dance of Shiva in Tillai, the traditional name for Chidambaram, forms the motif for all the depictions of Shiva as Nataraja. He is also known as “Sabesan” which splits as “Sabayil aadum eesan” in Tamil which means “The Lord who dances on the dais”.
The two most common forms of Shiva’s dance are the Lasya (the gentle form of dance), associated with the creation of the world, and the Tandava (the violent and dangerous dance), associated with the destruction of weary worldviews – weary perspectives and lifestyles.
- The arch of fire emerges from two makara on each end, which are water creatures of water and part of Hindu mythologies.
- The upper right hand holds a small drum shaped like an hourglass that is called a ḍamaru in Sanskrit.[27][28] A specific hand gesture (mudra) called ḍamaru-hasta (Sanskrit for “ḍamaru-hand”) is used to hold the drum
- His legs are bent, which suggests an energetic dance.
- The second left hand points towards the raised foot which suggests the viewer to be active and dance despite the circumstances, or alternatively as a sign of upliftment and liberation.
- The face shows two eyes plus a slightly open third on the forehead, which symbolize the triune in Shaivism.
The Asanapat inscription also mentions a Shiva temple in the Saivacaryas kingdom.
Stone reliefs depicting the classical form of Nataraja are found in numerous cave temples of India, such as the Ellora Caves (Maharashtra), the Elephanta Caves, and the Badami Caves (Karnataka), by around the 6th-century
Nataraja is celebrated in 108 poses of Bharatanatyam, with Sanskrit inscriptions from Natya Shastra, at the Nataraja temple in Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu, India.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.325 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana ?
- It is a Pension Scheme for the senior citizens aged 70 years and above
- The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST.
- On Premature exit 100% of the Purchase Price shall be refunded
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. B
Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from 4th May, 2017 to 3rd May, 2018.
Following are the major benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):
- Scheme provides an assured return of 8% p.a. payable monthly (equivalent to 8.30% p.a. effective) for 10 years.
- Pension is payable at the end of each period, during the policy term of 10 years, as per the frequency of monthly/ quarterly/ half-yearly/ yearly as chosen by the pensioner at the time of purchase.
- The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST.
- On survival of the pensioner to the end of the policy term of 10 years, Purchase price along with final pension installment shall be payable.
- Loan upto 75% of Purchase Price shall be allowed after 3 policy years (to meet the liquidity needs). Loan interest shall be recovered from the pension installments and loan to be recovered from claim proceeds.
- The scheme also allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical/ terminal illness of self or spouse. On such premature exit, 98% of the Purchase Price shall be refunded.
- On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years, the Purchase Price shall be paid to the beneficiary.
- The ceiling of maximum pension is for a family as a whole, the family will comprise of pensioner, his/her spouse and dependants.
- The shortfall owing to the difference between the interest guaranteed and the actual interest earned and the expenses relating to administration shall be subsidized by the Government of India and reimbursed to the Corporation.
Eligibility Conditions and Other Restrictions
- Minimum Entry Age: 60 years (completed)
- Maximum Entry Age: No limit
- Policy Term : 10 years
- Minimum Pension: Rs. 1,000/- per month
Rs. 3,000/- per quarter
Rs.6,000/- per half-year
Rs.12,000/- per year
- Maximum Pension: Rs. 5,000/- per month
Rs. 15,000/- per quarter
Rs. 30,000/- per half-year
Rs. 60,000/- per year
The modes of pension payment are monthly, quarterly, half-yearly & yearly. The pension payment shall be through NEFT or Aadhaar Enabled Payment System.
The first instalment of pension shall be paid after 1 year, 6 months, 3 months or 1 month from the date of purchase of the same depending on the mode of pension payment i.e. yearly, half-yearly, quarterly or monthly respectively.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.324 With reference to the incarnation of the Buddhas what does ” Ruru Jataka ” signifies ?
- A) It is the tale of the three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope, a woodpecker and a tortoise
- B) It is the story of “The dumb Prince” that is also known as Muga Pakaya Jataka
- C) In this jataka tale, the Buddha, in a previous incarnation as a monkey king, self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them
- D) is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha, incarnated as a golden deer, rescues a merchant from drowning in the river
Ans. D
Mahakapi Jataka : In this jataka tale, the Buddha, in a previous incarnation as a monkey king, self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them.
Ruru Jataka :
The Ruru Jataka is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha, incarnated as a golden deer, rescues a merchant from drowning in the river (bottom of medallion).
Kurunga Miga Jataka :
This story is about three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope, a woodpecker and a tortoise.
Muga Pakaya Jataka/ Mugapakkha Jataka/ Temiya Jataka :
This is the story of “The dumb Prince”
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Q.323 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the GSF certification (Gold standard foundation certificate) ?
- It is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
- It was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and Helio International only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
GSF (Gold standard foundation certificate) certification
The Gold Standard is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Joint Implementation (JI) and Voluntary Carbon Market.
It was designed to ensure that carbon credits are not only real and verifiable but that they make measurable contributions to sustainable development worldwide.
Its objective is to add branding, a label to existing and new Carbon Credits generated by projects which can then be bought and traded by countries that have a binding legal commitment according to the Kyoto Protocol.
The Gold Standard for CDM (GS CER) was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), SouthSouthNorth, and Helio International. The Voluntary Gold Standard(GS VER), a methodology for use within the voluntary carbon market, was launched in May 2006.
To be eligible for Gold Standard Certification, a project must:
- Be an approved Renewable Energy Supply or End use Energy Efficiency Improvement project type
- Be reducing one of the three eligible Green House Gases: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
- Not employ Official Development Assistance (ODA) under the condition that the credits coming out of the project are transferred to the donor country
- Not be applying for other certifications, to ensure there is no double counting of credits
- Demonstrate its additionality by using the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s (UNFCCC) Large Scale Additionality Tool;[6] and show that the project is not a ‘business-as-usual’ scenario
- Make a net-positive contribution to the economic, environmental and social welfare of the local population that hosts it
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.322 Consider the following statements :
- Barail range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System, in north eastern India
- The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau, and not part of the Purvanchal range
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Barail range :
The Purvanchal Mountains, or Eastern Mountains, are a sub-mountain range of the Himalayas in northeast India.
The Purvanchal Mountains cover the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram.
The range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System, in north eastern India. It bends sharply to the south beyond the Dihang River gorge, and spreads along the eastern boundary of India with Myanmar.
The Purvanchal range includes the hill ranges of the Patkai, Barail range, Manipur, Mizoram Mizo[disambiguation needed], and Naga Hills.
The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau, and not part of the Purvanchal range.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.321 Which among the following protocols employed the principle of differential treatment in respect to climate change ?
- Washington Naval Treaty
- Cartagena Protocol
- Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Common but Differentiated responsibilities & respective capabilities :
Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) was formalized in United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) of Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, 1992.
It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment.[3]
CBDR principle acknowledges all states have shared obligation to address environmental destruction but denies equal responsibility of all states with regard to environmental protection.
CBDR is based on relationship between industrialization and climate change
CBDR was not the first differential treatments of countries in international agreements.
There were other protocols, agreements that employed principle of differential treatment.
- Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone layer (Montreal Protocol)
- Washington Naval Treaty
- Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) 1979[9]
- principle 23 of Declaration of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment 1972
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Q.320 Recently a national park has been set up in the Sipahijola Wildlife Sanctuary where clouded leopards are kept in enclosures in a zoological park. Where
this wildlife sanctuary is located ?
- A) Meghalaya
- B) Tripura
- C) Sikkim
- D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. B
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Q.319 Recently in the news there was a term Superbugs, What is this ?
- A) These are the microorganism that are essential for the vital functions of the body
- B) These are the enzymes that makes bacteria resistant to broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics
- C) These are the bacteria that causes infection which is difficult to treat
- D) These are the super weeds that are essential in the treatment of less fertile soils
Ans. C
New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1 (NDM-1) is an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to a broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics.
These include the antibiotics of the carbapenem family, which are a mainstay for the treatment of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections. The gene for NDM-1 is one member of a large gene family that encodes beta-lactamase enzymes called carbapenemases.
Bacteria that produce carbapenemases are often referred to in the news media as “superbugs” because infections caused by them are difficult to treat. Such bacteria are usually susceptible only to polymyxins and tigecycline.
The most common bacteria that make this enzyme are gram-negative such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae, but the gene for NDM-1 can spread from one strain of bacteria to another by horizontal gene transfer
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Q.318 With reference to the ancient Pandu caves, consider the following statements:
- These caves depicts the characters of the Pandavas of the Mahabharata epic
- They are a significant group of Indian rock-cut architecture representing the Hinayana tradition.
- These are a group of 22 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. B
Pandav Caves:
Pandu Caves or Trirashmi Leni, Leni being a Marathi word for caves), are a group of 24 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE, though additional sculptures were added up to about the 6th century, reflecting changes in Buddhist devotional practices.
They are a significant group of early examples of Indian rock-cut architecture initially representing the so-called Hinayana tradition.
Most of the caves are viharas except for Cave 18 which is a chaitya of the 1st century BCE
The location of the caves is a holy Buddhist site and is located about 8 km south of the center of Nashik (or Nasik), Maharashtra, India.
Their name has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas, characters in the Mahabharata epic.
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Q.317 For which among the following purpose National Water Resource Council has been constituted ?
- A) It is an international thin tank established in 1996 to promote awareness, build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levels
- B) To advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010
- C) To resolve the water disputes that would arise in the use, control and distribution of an interstate river
- D) It is a non-profit organization that drives economic, technology and talent development to support the global water industry
Ans. B
National Water Resource Council
Dissolved 25 November 2014
Jurisdiction Commonwealth of Australia
Headquarters Turner, Australian Capital Territory
Motto Australia’s independent voice on national water issues
Employees 48
The key function that the Commission provided was to advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010
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Q.316 Who among the following are the members of the Western Pacific Naval Symposium ?
- India
- China
- Malaysia
- Australia
- Japan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2,4,5
- B) 1,3,4,5
- C) 2,3,4,5
- D) All are correct
Ans. C
The Western Pacific Naval Symposium are a series of biennial meetings of the Pacific nations to discuss naval matters
held on even numbered years. A WPNS workshop is held on odd numbered years in between the symposiums
Member countries as of 2010: Australia, Brunei, Cambodia, Canada, Chile, France, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, New Zealand,
Papua New Guinea, Peoples’ Republic of China, Philippines, Republic of Korea, Russia, Singapore, Thailand, Tonga,
United States of America, Vietnam. Observers: Bangladesh, India, Mexico, Peru.
FRAMED FROM GK TODAY MAGAZINE
Q.315 Who among the following is/are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) ?
- China
- India
- FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. A
It is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government, business and academia in Asia
and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this dynamic region and the world at large.
BFA is modeled after the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos, Switzerland.
The Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration and bringing Asian countries even closer to their
development goals.
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Q.314 Terai Arc Landscape program aims to protect which among the following terrestrial flagship species ?
- African elephant
- Great Horned Rhinoceros
- Asian Elephant
- Golden Lion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) 2,3,4
- C) Only 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,4
Ans. C
Terai Arc Landscape Program:
The program aims to protect three of the five terrestrial flagship species, the tiger, the Asian elephant and the great
one-horned rhinoceros, by restoring corridors of forest to link 13 protected areas of Nepal and India, to enable wildlife
migration.
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.313 What is crowdfunding ?
- A) Money collected for public welfare projects by levying an entry fee to exhibitions, shows etc.
- B) Money collected by charitable organisations by placing a donation box at a prominent locations
- C) Money raised by innovators & inventors by launching their products & services through the internet
- D) Money raised by individuals by passing the hat around to onlookers at a street performance
Ans. C
Crowdfunding is the practice of funding a project or venture by raising many small amounts of money from a large number of people, typically via the Internet.[1] Crowdfunding is a form of crowdsourcing and of alternative finance. In 2015, it was estimated that worldwide over US$34 billion was raised this way
the term crowdfunding refers to Internet-mediated registries. This modern crowdfunding model is generally based on three types of actors: the project initiator who proposes the idea and/or project to be funded, individuals or groups who support the idea, and a moderating organization (the “platform”) that brings the parties together to launch the idea.
Crowdfunding has been used to fund a wide range of for-profit entrepreneurial ventures such as artistic and creative projects, medical expenses, travel, or community-oriented social entrepreneurship projects
War bonds are theoretically a form of crowdfunding military conflicts.
The Crowdfunding Centre’s May 2014 report identified two primary types of crowdfunding:
- Rewards crowdfunding: entrepreneurs presell a product or service to launch a business concept without incurring debt or sacrificing equity/shares.
- Equity crowdfunding: the backer receives shares of a company, usually in its early stages, in exchange for the money pledged
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.312 The meaning of carbon footprint is described by the amount of :
- A) Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a result of the activities of a particular individual, organization or community
- B) Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contributing to global warming
- C) Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet fuel
- D) Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere due to the felling of trees
Ans. A
A carbon footprint is historically defined as the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual, event, organisation, or product, expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent
A measure of the total amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) emissions of a defined population, system or activity, considering all relevant sources, sinks and storage within the spatial and temporal boundary of the population, system or activity of interest. Calculated as carbon dioxide equivalent using the relevant 100-year global warming potential(GWP100).
Carbon footprint is one of a family of footprint indicators, which also includes water footprint and land footprint.
- 4Indirect carbon emissions: the carbon footprints of products
o 4.1Food
o 4.2Textiles
o 4.3Materials
o 4.4Cement
- 5Schemes to reduce carbon emissions: Kyoto Protocol, carbon offsetting, and certificates
Carbon dioxide emissions into the atmosphere, and the emissions of other GHGs, are often associated with the burning of fossil fuels, like natural gas, crude oil and coal.
The Kyoto Protocol defines legally binding targets and timetables for cutting the GHG emissions of industrialized countries that ratified the Kyoto Protocol. Accordingly, from an economic or market perspective, one has to distinguish between a mandatory market and a voluntary market. Typical for both markets is the trade with emission certificates:
- Certified Emission Reduction (CER)
- Emission Reduction Unit (ERU)
- Verified Emission Reduction (VER)
local emissions reduction schemes have no status under the Kyoto Protocol itself, they play a prominent role in creating the demand for CERs and ERUs, stimulating Emissions Trading and setting a market price for emissions.
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.311 Non-performing Assets decline in value when
- Demand revives in the economy
- capacity utilization increases
- Capacity utilization, through substantive is yet optimal
- Capacity utilization decreases consequent upon merger of units
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4
- B) 1,2,4
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time. In simple terms, an asset is tagged as non performing when it ceases to generate income for the lender
A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of Bond finance principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time. NPA is used by financial institutions that refer to loans that are in jeopardy of default the so called NPL. Once the borrower has failed to make interest or principal payments for 90 days the loan is considered to be a non-performing asset. Non-performing assets are problematic for financial institutions since they depend on interest payments for income. Troublesome pressure from the economy can lead to a sharp increase in NPLs and often results in massive write-downs.
Accordingly, with effect from March 31, 2004, a non-performing asset (NPA)is a loan or an advance where;
- Interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 91 days in respect of a term loan,
- The account remains ‘out of order’ for a period of more than 90 days, in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit (OD/CC),
- The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills purchased and discounted,
- Interest and/or installment of principal remains overdue for two harvest seasons but for a period not exceeding two half years in the case of an advance granted for agricultural purposes, and
- Any amount to be received remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of other accounts.
- Non submission of Stock Statements for 3 Continuous Quarters in case of Cash Credit Facility.
- No active transactions in the account (Cash Credit/Over Draft/EPC/PCFC) for more than 91days
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.310 Which of the following concepts are relatable to income of members of the public while considering public welfare ?
- Sensitivity of demand
- Elasticity of demand
- Sensitive of expenditure
- Elasticity of expenditure
- A) 1 & 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 3 & 4
- D) 1 & 4
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.309 Consider the following statements :
- Foods containing carotene (Vitamin A) or cooking oils are safe to be cooked in a microwave
- Thermocol plates are poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively high melting point
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Thermocol plates:-
It is a synthetic aromatic polymer made from the monomer styrene. Polystyrene can be solid or foamed. General-purpose polystyrene is clear, hard, and rather brittle. It is an inexpensive resin per unit weight.
It is a rather poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively low melting point.
Polystyrene is one of the most widely used plastics, the scale of its production being several million tonnes per year.
Polystyrene can be naturally transparent, but can be colored with colorants.
Uses include protective packaging (such as packing peanuts and CD and DVD cases), containers (such as “clamshells”), lids, bottles, trays, tumblers, disposable cutlery.[5] and in the making of models.
Polystyrene is very slow to biodegrade and is therefore a focus of controversy among environmentalists.
It is increasingly abundant as a form of litter in the outdoor environment, particularly along shores and waterways, especially in its foam form, and also in increasing quantities in the Pacific Ocean.
Polystyrene is chemically very inert, being resistant to acids and bases but is easily dissolved by many chlorinated solvents, and many aromatic hydrocarbon solvents. Because of its resilience and inertness, it is used for fabricating many objects of commerce. It is attacked by many organic solvents, which dissolve the polymer. Foamed polystyrene is used for packaging chemicals.
Like all organic compounds, polystyrene burns to give carbon dioxide and water vapor.
Polystyrene, being an aromatic hydrocarbon, typically combusts incompletely as indicated by the sooty flame.
Polystyrene is generally non-biodegradable.
Polystyrene is commonly used in containers for food and drinks. The styrene monomer (from which polystyrene is made) is a cancer suspect agent
Another Japanese study conducted on wild-type and AhR-null mice found that the styrene trimer, which the authors detected in cooked polystyrene container-packed instant foods, may increase thyroid hormone levels
Whether polystyrene can be microwaved with food is controversial. Some containers may be safely used in a microwave, but only if labelled as such.[67] Some sources suggest that foods containing carotene (Vitamin A) or cooking oils must be avoided
Like other organic compounds, polystyrene is flammable.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.308 Bio-ethanol can be produced from which of the following feedstocks ?
- Bagasses
- Sorghum
- Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Bio-Ethanol:
Ethanol can be produced from a variety of feedstocks such as sugar cane, bagasse, miscanthus, sugar beet, sorghum, grain, switchgrass, barley, hemp, kenaf, potatoes, sweet potatoes, cassava, sunflower, fruit, molasses, corn, stover, grain, wheat, straw, cotton,
Two types of second generation processes are under development. The first type uses enzymes and yeast fermentation to convert the plant cellulose into ethanol while the second type uses pyrolysis to convert the whole plant to either a liquid bio-oil or a syngas. Second generation processes can also be used with plants such as grasses, wood or agricultural waste material such as straw.
By-products such as straw or wood chips can be converted to ethanol. Fast growing species like switchgrass can be grown on land not suitable for other cash crops and yield high levels of ethanol per unit area.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.307 Which among the following has been classified under the category of Eurythermal organism ?
- Red Algae
- Coral reefs
- Golden brown Algae
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. A
Eurythermal organisms:
Which can tolerate & thrive in wide range of temperatures.
Ex: Cat, Dog, Tiger, Red Algae, Golden brown Algae, Angiosperms sea Grass
Cryophillic organisms:
Which can thrive at lower temperature (as low as zero degree centigrade)
Seals , Coral reefs, Arctic Crustaceans, Salmon
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.306 As per Kyoto Protocol agreement, which among the following is/are the parties of Annex-I Countries ?
- Kazakhstan
- Belarus
- Turkey
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Belarus, Malta, and Turkey are Annex I Parties but do not have first-round Kyoto targets
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.305 Consider the following :
- Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh
- Screw Pine handicraft : Odisha
- Pipili Aplique Work : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 3
- D) Only 1
Ans. D
Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh
Screw Pine handicraft : Kerala
Pipili Aplique Work : Odisha
FROM CAPF
Q.304 Which of the following was/were not related to the Buddha’s life ?
- Kanthaka
- Alara Kalama
- Channa
- Goshala Maskariputra
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 4
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 3 & 4
Ans.B
FROM CAPF
Q.303 With reference to the Wavell plan, consider the following provisions :
- Under this plan India was granted dominion status
- Indians would themselves draft the constitution
- Position of secretary of state & viceroy would remain the same
- Viceroy would retain the power of veto
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
- A) 1,3,4
- B) 2,3,4
- C) Only 1 & 4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
These proposals were not to be applied to the Indian states
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.302 Which among the following is/are the examples of the Invasive Species ?
- Water Hyacinth
- Wild rose
- Mimosa Invisa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The invasive water hyacinth is very common, often choking the water bodies, but it is cleared during destructive floods.
Another invasive species, Mimosa invisa, which is toxic to herbivores, was cleared by Kaziranga staff with help from the Wildlife Trust of India in 2005
Invasive species such as Mimosa and wild rose have posed a threat to the native plants in the region.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.301 Consider the following :
- Ambubachi mela : Assam
- Anthurium Festival : Manipur
- Kut-Festival : Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
- Ambubachi mela : Assam
- Anthurium Festival : Mizoram
- Kut-Festival : Manipur.
It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur.
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.300 Consider the following statements :
Consider the following statements :
- IPDS strengthens the distribution network in urban areas while DDUGJY does the same in rural areas
- DELP focuses to substitute LED bulbs for incandescent bulbs
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
“Integrated Power Development Scheme” (IPDS) with the objectives of: 1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution network in the urban areas; 2. Metering of distribution transformers /feeders / consumers in the urban areas. 3. IT enablement of distribution sector and strengthening of distribution network as per CCEA approval dated 21.06.2013 for completion of targets laid down under Restructured Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (RAPDRP) for 12th and 13th Plans by carrying forward the approved outlay for RAPDRP to IPDS. The scheme will help in reduction in AT&C losses, establishment of IT enabled energy accounting / auditing system, improvement in billed energy based on metered consumption and improvement in collection efficiency.
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana: is a Government of India scheme designed to provide continuous power supply to rural India.[1] The initiative is named in honor of Indian political philosopher Deen Dayal Upadhyaya. It is one of the key initiatives of the NDA government 2014-2019. The government plans to invest ₹756 billion (US$12 billion) for rural electrification under this scheme. The scheme will replace the existing Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana (RGGVY).[2]
The DDUGJY scheme : It will enable to initiate much awaited reforms in the rural areas. It focuses on feeder separation (rural households & agricultural) and strengthening of sub-transmission & distribution infrastructure including metering at all levels in rural areas. The deadline for the Centre’s rural electrification programme is May 2018. Keeping in view the above problems, Ministry of Power, Government of India has launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana for rural areas having following objectives: To provide electrification to all villages Feeder separation to ensure sufficient power to farmers and regular supply to other consumers Improvement of Sub-transmission and distribution network to improve the quality and reliability of the supply Metering to reduce the losses
Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP): The scheme was announced as “Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP)” on 5 January 2015, urging the people to use LED bulbs in place of incandescent bulbs, tube lights and CFL bulbs as they are more efficient, long lasting and economical in their life cycle duration. The government’s target is to replace 77 crore incandescent bulbs in India with LEDs by 2019 leading to an expected reduction in installed load of 20,000 MW with an annual estimated savings of over 100 million kwh and an annual reduction of ₹400 billion (US$6.3 billion) in electricity bills “Bachat Lamp Yojana” was a launched by the government of India on 25 February 2009 to reduce the cost of compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs, i.e., energy saving lights) sold to consumers.
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS
Q.299 Government of India had introduced Consumer protection Bill 2015. The bill gives the right to consumers to:
- seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices
2.File a complaint for overcharging or deceptive charging
Which of the above is/are included in the bill ?
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was enacted to provide protection of the interests of consumers and for the purpose of establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumer disputes, and for matter connected therewith The said Act was amended three times to make the act more effective but even then there were a few lacunas and nuances that were not incorporated. Several shortcomings have been noticed while administering the various provisions of the said Act. The new Consumer Protection Bill 2015 that has been introduced in the monsoon session of parliament seeks to replace the old act. The primary motivation to replace the older law with a new one is to modernise the law with respect to the development of new markets and to further widen the ambit and a scope of the law to incorporate nuances so that the big companies cannot use them as loop holes to exploit the consumers and to further increase the accountability of the said companies. The new bill seeks to make manufacturers liable for any injury attributed to the consumer or death of a consumer or property damage and get them sentenced for life.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.298 Which among the following comes under the classification of Microfauna ?
- Bacteria
- Protozoa
- Fungi
- Mites
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 4
- B) 1,3,4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) 2 & 4
Ans. D
-Microflora : Bacteria , Fungi, Actinomycetes, Microscopic Algae
-Microfauna : Protozoans, Rotifers, Polycads, Nematodes, Mites, Copepods (20-200 micron)
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.297 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the FDI ?
- Overseas corporate bodies (OCB) are disallowed to invest in India
- Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of shares
- After 2010, Permission of upto 49% FDI under the government automatic approval route in multi brand retailing, subject to specified conditions has been allowed under FDI policy changes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. D
– Broadly, foreign direct investment includes “mergers and acquisitions, building new facilities, reinvesting profits earned from overseas operations and intra company loans”. In a narrow sense, foreign direct investment refers just to building new facility, a lasting management interest (10 percent or more of voting stock) in an enterprise operating in an economy other than that of the investor
FDI is the sum of equity capital, other long-term capital, and short-term capital as shown the balance of payments.
FDI usually involves participation in management, joint-venture, transfer of technology and expertise.
Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of shares
Types of FDI
- Horizontal FDI arises when a firm duplicates its home country-based activities at the same value chain stage in a host country through FDI.
- Platform FDI Foreign direct investment from a source country into a destination country for the purpose of exporting to a third country.
- Vertical FDI takes place when a firm through FDI moves upstream or downstream in different value chains i.e., when firms perform value-adding activities stage by stage in a vertical fashion in a host country
Foreign direct investment incentives may take the following forms:
- low corporate tax and individual income tax rates
- tax holidays
- other types of tax concessions
- preferential tariffs
- special economic zones
- EPZ – Export Processing Zones
- Bonded warehouses
- Maquiladoras
- investment financial subsidies[8]
- free land or land subsidies
- relocation & expatriation
- infrastructure subsidies
- R&D support
- Energy
- derogation from regulations (usually for very large projects)
Foreign investment was introduced in 1991 under Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), driven by then finance minister Manmohan Singh.
India disallowed overseas corporate bodies (OCB) to invest in India. India imposes cap on equity holding by foreign investors in various sectors,
current FDI in aviation and insurance sectors is limited to a maximum of 49%
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.296 Which among the following is/are the examples of the floating plants ?
- Azolla
- Utricularia
- Wolfia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
Floating Plants : Wolfia, Lemna, Azolla, Eichhornia
Submerged Plants : Ceratophylum, Utricularia, Najas
Rooted -Floated Plants : Sagitaria, Ranunculus, Cyperus
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.295 Which among the following is/are the producers of an ecosystem ?
- Sea weeds
- Algae
- Bryophytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Producers of an ecosystem :
Algae, Bryophyte, Pteridophytes, Flowering plants, Some photosynthetic bacteria
Sea weeds are producers in marine ecosystem
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.294 With reference to the news, which among the following is/are correct with respect to the SAWEN ?
- It is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in 2013.
- All the south Asian countries are the members of the SAWEN regional network
Select the correct answers using the code given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
SAWEN is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in January, 2011 in Paro, Bhutan. It aims at working collectively . as a strong regional inter-governmental body to combat wildlife crime by attainting common mutual goals and approaches for combating illegal trade in the region. SAWEN’s regional network comprises of eight South Asia countries: Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.293 Which of the following is correct ?
- A) Guindy national park is known for tiger reserve
- B) Namdapha national park is meant for lion conservation
- C) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve
- D) Rann of Kutch is wild ass sanctuary
Ans. D
Guindy National Park is a 2.70 km2 (1.04 sq mi) Protected area of Tamil Nadu, located in Chennai, South India, is the 8th smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national parks situated inside a city.
-There are over 14 species of mammals including blackbuck, chital or spotted deer, jackal, small Indian civet, common palm civet, bonnet macaque, hyena, pangolin, hedgehog, common mongoose and three-striped palm squirrel.
Guindy Snake Park, formerly the location of Madras Crocodile Bank Trust, is next to the Guindy National Park.
Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary) is a national park situated at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Alipurduar District of northern West Bengal and on the banks of the Torsa River.
The nearby Chilapata Forests is an elephant corridor between Jaldapara and the Buxa Tiger Reserve[4] Near by is the Gorumara National Park, known for its population of Indian rhinoceros.
Toto tribes and Mech Tribes (Bodos) used to stay in this area before 1800.
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India.
The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarpforests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
Namdapha and Pakke Tiger Reserve are in a region, which is the eastern limit of the Bengal tiger’s and thenorth-western limit of the Indochinese tiger’s range
Non-human primates present include stump-tailed macaque, slow loris, hoolock gibbon, capped langur, Assamese macaque and rhesus macaque
The Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat, India and the Sindhprovince of Pakistan.
The Ghaggar River, which presently empties into the desert of northern Rajasthan, formerly emptied into the Rann of Kutch, but the lower reaches of the river dried up as its upstream tributaries were captured by the Indus and Ganges thousands of years ago.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.292 Which among the following has been accorded UNESCO World heritage status ?
- Serengeti national park
- Sanctuary of Machu Picchu
- Arabian Oryx sanctuary
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 1
Ans. C
UNESCO WORLD HERITAGE STATUS
A World Heritage Site is an already classified landmark, which by way of being unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable piece is of special cultural or physical significance (such as either due to hosting an ancient ruins or some historical structure, building, city, complex, desert, forest, island, lake, monument, or mountain)
The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the UN General Assembly.[2]
A single text was agreed on by all parties, and the “Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage” was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO on 16 November 1972.
The Convention came into force on 17 December 1975. As of May 2017, it has been ratified by 193 states parties, including 189 UN member states plus the Cook Islands, the Holy See, Niue, and the Palestinian territories. Only four UN member states have not ratified the Convention: Liechtenstein, Nauru, Somalia and Tuvalu
The Committee meets once per year to determine whether or not to inscribe each nominated property on the World Heritage List and sometimes defers or refers the decision to request more information from the country which nominated the site. There are ten selection criteria – a site must meet at least one of them to be included on the list.
Serengeti National Park, an example of natural heritage site
Taj Mahal, an example of cultural heritage site
Historic Sanctuary of Machu Picchu, an example of mixed heritage site
Only two sites have ever been delisted: the Arabian Oryx Sanctuary in Oman and the Dresden Elbe Valley in Germany.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.291 Consider the following tribes :
State / Region Tribes
- Minicoy : Dhivehis
- Andaman Islands : Jangil
- Meghalaya : Jaintia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Ethnic groups of Meghalaya :
Ethnic groups 2011 :
- Khasi: 50%
- Garo: 27.5%
- Bengali: 14%
- Nepali: 5.26%
- Koch: 1.8%
- Jaintia: 2.5%
- Hajong: 2.8%
- Biate: 1.1%
- Tiwa (Lalung): 1.2%
- Kuki: 0.43%
- Shaikh: 0.3%
- Other: 9.33%
-By the 1850s when they first came into sustained contact by outside groups, there were estimated 7,000 Andamanese, divided into the following major groups:
- Great Andamanese.
- Jarawa.
- Jangil (or Rutland Jarawa)
- Onge.
- Sentinelese.
Minicoy :
Minicoy, locally known as Maliku is an island in Lakshadweep, India. Along with Viringili, it is on Maliku atoll, the southernmost atoll of Lakshadweep archipelago. Administratively, it is a census town in the Indian union territory of Lakshadweep.
Minicoy is the second largest and the southernmost among the islands of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located 201 km to the SSW of Kalpeni, at the southern end of the Nine Degree Channel and 125 km to the north of Thuraakunu, Maldives, at the northern end of the Eight Degree Channel.
Maliku Kandu is the traditional name of the broad channel between Minicoy (Maliku) and Ihavandippulhu (Haa Alif Atoll) in the Maldives. In the Admiralty Charts it is called Eight Degree Channel.
Other names for this channel are Addigiri Kandu and Māmalē Kandu. It appeared in old French maps with the name Courant de Malicut.
Minicoy has a tropical savanna climate (Köppen climate classification Aw) with warm temperatures throughout the year. Precipitation falls during most of the year; only January to March are relatively dry.
The people of Minicoy are ethnically Dhivehis and make up the third subgroup of Dhivehis referred as Mahls.
Thuraakunu in the Maldives is the closest island to Minicoy.
The bodun owned land and bandu-odies (merchant ships); they were the vering (rulers). The niamin were pilots of the Bandu-odies and while on shore assisted the bodun in administrative and other leadership functions; they were custodians of property and supervised public work. The medhukimbin and the raaverin were working classes (the medhukimbin enjoying a status higher than the raaverin.) The raaverin tapped coconut palms for toddy, a distinctive beverage converted into sweet palm syrup. Coconut vinegar, known as raahuiiy, was also produced by the raaverin.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.290 Which among the following species is/ are the part of the Keibul lamjao National Park ?
- Sangai
- Brown-antlered deer
- stump-tailed macaque,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Fauna recorded in the precincts of the Lake in the Keibul Lamjo National Park are the Indian python, sambar, barking deer, the endangered sangai species of Eld’s deer, wild bear, Muntiacus muntjak, rhesus monkey, hoolock gibbon, stump-tailed macaque, Indian civet Viverra zibetha, marbled cat and Temminck’s golden cat.
The Keibul Lamjao National Park is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai (state animal)Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), one of three subspecies of Eld’s deer
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.289 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute ?
- President of India
- Representatives of Government of India
- Prime Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliament.
Primary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics, development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences. Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta, the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959, through an act of Indian parliament, Indian Statistical Institute act, 1959. ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of the Government of India.
Members of this council include the President of ISI, the Chairman of ISI, representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI, scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC, representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI, and representative from academic staff of ISI, including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISI.
The second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth .
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.288 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards ?
1.It is the national Standards Body of India working under the Ministry of Commerce
- As a corporate body, it has 21 members drawn from Central or State Governments only
- BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 2
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 which came into effect on 23 December 1986.[2] The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS.
As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations. Its headquarters are in New Delhi, with regional offices in Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Chandigarh and Delhiand 20 branch offices. It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for India.
BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO)
It represents India in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and the World Standards Service Network (WSSN).
Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety
National Institute of Training for Standardization (NITS)
It is a training institute of BIS which is set up in 1995. It is functioning from Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India.[7]
The primary activities of NITS are:-
- In-House and Open Training Programme for Industry
- International Training Programme for Developing Countries (Commonwealth countries)
- Training Programme to its employees.
Indian Standards Bill, 2015
The main objectives of the proposed legislation are:-
- To establish the Bureau of Indian standards(BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.
- The Bureau to perform its functions through a governing council, which will consist of President and other members.
- To include goods, services and systems, besides articles and processes under the standardization regime.
- To enable the government to bring under the mandatory certification regime for such articles, processes or service which it considers necessary from the point of view of health, safety, environment, prevention of deceptive practices, consumer security etc. This will help consumers receive ISI certified products and will also help in prevention of import of sub-standard products.
- To allow multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity (SDOC) against any standard which will give multiple simplified options to manufacturers to adhere to standards and get a certificate of conformity, thus improving the ‘ease of doing business’.
- To enable the Central Government to appoint any authority in addition to the Bureau of Indian Standards, to verify the conformity of products and services to a standard and issue certificate of conformity.
- To enable the Government to implement mandatory hallmarking of precious metals articles.
- To strengthen penal provisions for better effective compliance and enable compounding of offences for violations.
- To provide recall, including product liability of products bearing the Standard Mark, but not conforming to relevant Indian Standards.
- Repeal of the BIS Act of 1986.
- The Bureau of Indian Standards Act 2016 received the assent of the President on 21 March 2016
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.287 For which of the following products ISO certification is mandatory ?
- Thermometers
- Drinking water
- LPG Cylinders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.286 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the 2,4-D ( 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) ?
- In agriculture, it is the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing of crops apart from weeds
- Mostly grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected by this herbicide
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (usually called 2,4-D) is an organic compound with the chemical formula C8H6Cl2O3. It is a systemic herbicide which selectively kills most broadleaf weeds by causing uncontrolled growth in them, but leaves most grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected.
It can be found in numerous commercial lawn herbicide mixtures, and is widely used as a weedkiller on cereal crops, pastures, and orchards.
2,4-D was one of the ingredients in Agent Orange, a herbicide widely used during the Vietnam War
2,4-D is primarily used as a selective herbicide which kills many terrestrial and aquatic broadleaf weeds, but not grasses.
It acts by mimicking the action of the plant growth hormone auxin, which results in uncontrolled growth and eventually death in susceptible plants
In agriculture, it was the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing weeds but not crops.
It is often used by government agencies to control the spread of invasive, noxious and non-native weed species and prevent them from crowding out native species, and also to control many poisonous weeds such as poison ivy and poison oak
Men who work with 2,4-D are at risk for abnormally shaped sperm and thus fertility problems;
Residue levels in kidney were the highest
2,4-D is a synthetic auxin, which is a class of plant hormones.
FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA
Q.285 MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for which of the following ?
- Demand deposits
- Forward rate agreements
- Term deposits
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
The MIBID/MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for majority of deals struck for Interest Rate Swaps, Forward Rate Agreements, Floating Rate Debentures and Term Deposits.
MIBOR – Mumbai Inter-Bank Offer Rate
The Committee for the Development of the Debt Market that had studied and recommended the modalities for the development for a benchmark rate for the call money market. Accordingly, NSE had developed and launched the NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Bid Rate (MIBID) and NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Offer Rate (MIBOR) for the overnight money market on June 15, 1998.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.284 Consider the following :
- Ambubachi mela : Assam
- Anthurium Festival : Arunachal Pradesh
- Kut festival : Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. B
Ambubachi mela : Assam
Anthurium Festival : Mizoram
Kut-Festival Of Kuki-Chin-Mizo:
It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.283 Which among the following reports are released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) ?
- Trade and Development Report
- World development report
- World investment report
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1 & 2
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body.
UNCTAD is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. The organization’s goals are to: “maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis.
The conference ordinarily meets once in four years; the permanent secretariat is in Geneva.
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development was established to provide a forum where the developing countries could discuss the problems relating to their economic development.
Currently, UNCTAD has 194 member states and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. UNCTAD has 400 staff members and a bi-annual (2010–2011) regular budget of $138 million in core expenditures and $72 million in extra-budgetary technical assistance funds. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.[2] There are non-governmental organizations participating in the activities of UNCTAD
UNCTAD produces a number of topical reports, including:
- The Trade and Development Report
- The Trade and Environment Review
- The World Investment Report
- The Economic Development in Africa Report
- The Least Developed Countries Report
- UNCTAD Statistics
- The Information Economy Report
- The Review of Maritime Transport
- The International Accounting and Reporting Issues Annual Review
- The Technology and Innovation Repor
UNCTAD conducts technical cooperation programmes such as ASYCUDA, DMFAS, EMPRETEC and WAIPA.
In addition, UNCTAD conducts certain technical cooperation in collaboration with the World Trade Organization through the joint International Trade Centre (ITC), a technical cooperation agency targeting operational and enterprise-oriented aspects of trade development.
UNCTAD hosts the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting (ISAR).
FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA
Q.282 With reference to the news, what are AD Category-I banks ?
- A) It is the form of Smart Banking initiative that enables banks to optimise customer engagement models
- B) These are the business correspondents that extend small credit on behalf of the banks
- C) These are the banks that are equipped with technology for automated transaction of cash
- D) These are the banks that deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers’ cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees & Vice versa
Ans. D
Authorised Dealer(AD) category 1 bank is one of the three types of authorised money changer approved by the RBI under Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) with the other two being Authorised Dealer category 2 and Full Fledged Money Changer(FFMC). They deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers’ cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees and vice versa. Their objective is to provide easier foreign exchange facilties for travellers and tourists, including NRIs.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.281 Consider the following :
- Hemis Gompa : Ladakh
- Chhipla Jaat : Himachal Pradesh
- Jhiri Mela : Jammu & Kashmir
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Some of the festivals celebrated in the Uttarakhand region are Basant Panchami, Bhitauli, Harela, Phool Dei, Batsavitri, Ganga Dusshera or Dasar, Dikar Puja, Olgia or Ghee Sankranti, Khatarua, Ghuian Ekadashi, Chhipla Jaat, Kandali, Janopunya, Kumaon Holi (including Khari Holi and Baithaki Holi) and Makar Sankranti.
The most commonly celebrated festivals in Kashmir are Lohri, Baisakhi, Bahu mela, the Jhiri mela, the Mansar food and craft mela, Chaitre Chaudash mela and the Purmandal mela.
Hemis Gompa, the largest and richest Buddhist monastery in Ladakh plays host to the popular yearly festival day called Hemis Festival.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.280 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival ?
- The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year
- The duration of stay can be extended for one year
- Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa & Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
Tourist visa scheme
Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements, have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India. Citizens of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, mainland China, Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian Citizenship.
Visa On Arrival:
Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival (VOA) in Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata or Mumbai. The visa is issued for business, tourist, medical and conference categories, and has a validity of 30 days.[3] The cost is ₹2,000. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year.[4][1] Alternatively, foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days, or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA scheme.
Double entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa. Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa. The duration of stay cannot be extended
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.279 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the whitley awards ?
- These are awarded annually by the WWF for the national & regional conservation
- It also serves as a forum between employers and employees for the conservation of wildlife
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Whitley awards – For Wildlife conservation
The Whitley Awards are made annually by the Whitley Fund for Nature (WFN) to recognise and celebrate effective national and regional conservation leaders across the globe. The awards are worth £35,000 (2017) and are now amongst the most high profile of conservation prizes – they have been called the “Green Oscars”.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.278 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Loro account ?
- Commercial banks maintains their own loro accounts with the authorization from RBI
- A balance on loro account represents central bank money in the regarded currency
Select the correct answer using the codes given below “
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
The central bank maintains loro accounts for a group of commercial banks, the so-called direct payment banks. A balance on such a loro account (it is a nostro account in the view of the commercial bank) represents central bank money in the regarded currency. Since central bank money currently exists mainly in the form of electronic records (electronic money) rather than in the form of paper or coins (physical money), open market operations can be conducted by simply increasing or decreasing (crediting or debiting) the amount of electronic money that a bank has in its reserve account at the central bank.
Open market operations
An open market operation (OMO) is an activity by a central bank to give (or take) liquidity in its currency to (or from) a bank or a group of banks.
The central bank can either buy or sell government bonds in the open market (this is where the name was historically derived from) or, in what is now mostly the preferred solution, enter into a repo or secured lending transaction with a commercial bank: the central bank gives the money as a deposit for a defined period and synchronously takes an eligible asset as collateral.
A central bank uses OMO as the primary means of implementing monetary policy.
The usual aim of open market operations is – aside from supplying commercial banks with liquidity and sometimes taking surplus liquidity from commercial banks – to manipulate the short-term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly control the total money supply, in effect expanding money or contracting the money supply.
This involves meeting the demand of base money at the target interest rate by buying and selling government securities, or other financial instruments. Monetary targets, such as inflation, interest rates, or exchange rates, are used to guide this implementation
Classical economic theory postulates a distinctive relationship between the supply of central bank money and short-term interest rates: like for a commodity, a higher demand for central bank money would increase its price, the interest rate. When there is an increased demand for base money, the central bank must act if it wishes to maintain the short-term interest rate. It does this by increasing the supply of base money: it goes to the open market to buy a financial asset, such as government bonds.
- Under a currency board open market operations would be used to achieve and maintain a fixed exchange rate with relation to some foreign currency.
- Under a gold standard, notes would be convertible to gold, and so open market operations could be used to keep the value of a fiat currency constant relative to gold.
The two traditional type of OMO’s used by RBI:
- Outright purchase (PEMO): Is outright buying or selling of government securities. (Permanent).
- Repurchase agreement (REPO): Is short term, and are subject to repurchase
The RBI brought together a Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). It commenced in June, 2000, and it was set up to oversee liquidity on a daily basis and to monitor market interest rates. For the LAF, two rates are set by the RBI: repo rate and reverse repo rate. The repo rate is applicable while selling securities to RBI (daily injection of liquidity), while the reverse repo rate is applicable when banks buy back those securities (daily absorption of liquidity). Also, these interest rates fixed by the RBI also help in determining other market interest rates
on the recommendations of the Working Group of RBI on instruments of Sterilization (December, 2003), a new scheme known as the Market stabilization scheme (MSS) was set up. The LAF and the OMO’s were dealing with day-to-day liquidity management, whereas the MSS was set up to sterilize the liquidity absorption and make it more enduring
According to this scheme, the RBI issues additional T-bills and securities to absorb the liquidity. And the money goes into the Market Stabilization scheme Account (MSSA). The RBI cannot use this account for paying any interest or discounts and cannot credit any premiums to this account. The Government, in collaboration with the RBI, fixes a ceiling amount on the issue of these instruments.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.277 Which among the following species is/ are not the extinct species under the IUCN status ?
- Steller’s sea cow
- Short tailed albatross
- Spectacled cormorant
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
The Bering Sea is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean.It comprises a deep water basin, which then rises through a narrow slope into the shallower water above the continental shelves.
There is a small portion of the Kula Plate in the Bering Sea. The Kula Plate is an ancient tectonic plate that used to subduct under Alaska
The sea supports many whale species including the beluga, humpback whale, bowhead whale, gray whale and blue whale, the vulnerable sperm whale, and the endangered fin whale, sei whale and the rarest in the world, the North Pacific right whale. Other marine mammals include walrus, Steller sea lion, northern fur seal, orca and polar bear.
Seabird species include tufted puffins, the endangered short-tailed albatross, spectacled eider, and red-legged kittiwakes.
Two Bering Sea species, the Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas) and spectacled cormorant (Phalacrocorax perspicillatus), are extinct because of overexploitation by man. In addition, a small subspecies of Canada goose, the Bering Canada goose (Branta canadensis asiatica) is extinct due to overhunting and introduction of rats to their breeding islands.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.276 With reference to the news, what is 20:80 scheme of gold ?
- A) It is the central sponsored scheme representing the highest share of the central government as compared to the state government
- B) It was introduced to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit
- C) It is the central sponsored scheme for increasing the visible & invisible exports
- D) It was introduced to enhance the gold exports thereby reducing the fiscal deficit
Ans. B
The 20:80 import rule linking imports to exports was introduced last year to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit that had hit a record of 4.8 per cent of GDP.
Although legal import of gold declined in the subsequent months, the 20:80 rule was not only encouraging smuggling but it was also misused by many traders.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.275 Which among the following is/are the targets that have to be achieved under the AMRUT scheme ?
- Tap water & sewerage facilities
- Internet & wifi facilities
- Pollution reduction
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus of the urban renewal projects is to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for urban transformation. Rajasthan was the first state in the country to submit State Annual Action Plan under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT).
About ₹1 lakh crore (US$16 billion) investment on urban development under Smart Cities Mission and the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation of 500 cities has already been approved by the government
Some of the broad targets of AMRUT scheme are ascertaining that every one has access to tap water and sewerage facilities, greenery like parks and open spaces are well maintained, digital and smart facilities like weather prediction, internet and WiFi facilities, pollution reduction by encouraging the public for using cheaper but secure public transport etc.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.274 As per Vavilov’s centre of origin which among the following comes under the Indo-Burma region ?
- Assam
- North West Punjab
- Burma
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.273 Consider the following :
- Melghat Tiger reserve : Maharashtra
2.Tansa Wildlife sanctuary : Tripura
- Purna wildlife sanctuary : Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1 & 2
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
In Gujarat, the owlet can be found in Purna Wildlife Sanctuary
Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra
The forest owlet remains critically endangered, and the population in 2015 was estimated by Birdlife International at less than 250.
An individual was located in Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary in the Thane district in 2014
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.272 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the subatomic particles Baryon ?
- These are the quark-based particles that participate in the strong interaction
- They are similar in functioning as compared to the lepton & Mesons
- Protons & neutrons are the only baryons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
A baryon is a composite subatomic particle made up of three quarks (a triquark, as distinct from mesons, which are composed of one quark and one antiquark). Baryons and mesons belong to the hadron family of particles, which are the quark-based particles.
As quark-based particles, baryons participate in the strong interaction, whereas leptons, which are not quark-based, do not. The most familiar baryons are the protons and neutrons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe. Electrons (the other major component of the atom) are leptons.
Each baryon has a corresponding antiparticle (antibaryon) where quarks are replaced by their corresponding antiquarks. For example, a proton is made of two up quarks and one down quark; and its corresponding antiparticle, the antiproton, is made of two up antiquarks and one down antiquark.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.271 Which among the following is/are the examples of the e-liquids that are used in e-cigarettes ?
- Water
- Nicotine
- Glycerine
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
An electronic cigarette or e-cigarette is a handheld electronic device that tries to create the feeling of tobacco smoking. It works by heating a liquid to generate an aerosol, commonly called a “vapor”, that the user inhales. Using e-cigarettes is sometimes called vaping. The liquid in the e-cigarette, called e-liquid, is usually made of nicotine, propylene glycol, glycerine, and flavorings. Not all e-liquids contain nicotine
The health risks of e-cigarettes are uncertain. They are likely safer than tobacco cigarettes, but the long-term health effects are not known
They can help some smokers quit. When used by non-smokers, e-cigarettes can lead to nicotine addiction, and there is concern that children could start smoking after using e-cigarettes
Less serious adverse effects include throat and mouth irritation, vomiting, nausea, and coughing
The majority of toxic chemicals found in tobacco smoke are absent in e-cigarette aerosol.
Those present are mostly below 1% corresponding levels in tobacco smoke
The emergence of e-cigarettes has given cannabis smokers a new method of inhaling cannabinoids. E-cigarettes differ from traditional marijuana cigarettes in several respects. It is assumed that vaporizing cannabinoids at lower temperatures is safer because it produces smaller amounts of toxic substances than the hot combustion of a marijuana cigarette
E-liquid is the mixture used in vapor products such as e-cigarettes and generally consists of propylene glycol, glycerin, water, nicotine, and flavorings
Smoking a traditional cigarette yields between 0.5 and 1.5 mg of nicotine, but the nicotine content of the cigarette is only weakly correlated with the levels of nicotine in the smoker’s bloodstream
Nicotine in tobacco smoke is absorbed into the bloodstream rapidly, and e-cigarette vapor is relatively slow in this regard.
The concentration of nicotine in e-liquid ranges up to 36 mg/Ml
FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM
Q.270 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Lingayatism ?
- Lingayatism was founded by the Basava in the 11th century
- Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire
- The Lingayats buried their dead in the Dhyana mudra with their Ishta linga in their left hand.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. B
Lingayatism is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India. Its worship is centered on Hindu god Shiva as the universal god in the iconographic form of Ishtalinga. The adherents of this faith are known as Lingayats. Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers, called Sharanas.[1] Lingayatism emphasizes qualified monism and bhakti (loving devotion) to Shiva, with philosophical foundations similar to those of the 11th–12th-century South Indian philosopher Ramanuja
The terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously, and Lingayats also referred to as Veerashaivas.[2][3][4]Lingayatism is considered a Hindu sect,[2][5] but some Lingayats have sought legal recognition as a religion distinct from Hinduism.[2][6]Lingayatism shares beliefs with Indian religions, such as about reincarnation, samsara and karma
Contemporary Lingayatism is influential in South India, especially in the state of Karnataka.[10] Today, Lingayats, along with Shaiva Siddhanta followers, Tirunelveli Saiva Pillai, Nadar, Naths, Pashupaths of Nepal, Kapalikas and others constitute the Shaiva population
The Lingayat iṣṭaliṅga is an oval-shaped emblem symbolising Parashiva, the absolute reality, and is worn on the body by a cord hung around the neck.
Basava is credited with founding Lingayatism and its secular practices.[2] He was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka, India
Basavanna spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination, as well as some extant practices such as the wearing of sacred thread,[19] and replaced this with the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga necklace, with an image of the Shiva Liṅga
Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire.[22] The Lingayats likely were a part of the reason why Vijayanagara succeeded in territorial expansion and in withstanding the Deccan Sultanate wars. The Lingayat text Sunya sampadane grew out of the scholarly discussions in a Anubhava Mantap, and according to Bill Aitken, these were “compiled at the Vijayanagara court during the reign of Praudha Deva Raya
Similarly, the scripture of Lingayatism Basava Purana was completed in 1369 during the reign of Vijayanagara ruler Bukka Raya I
Lingayat (Veerashaiva) thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras, but they did not outright reject the Vedic knowledge.[29][30] The 13th-century Telugu Virashaiva poet Palkuriki Somanatha, author of Basava Purana – a scripture of Veerashaivas, for example asserted, “Virashaivism fully conformed to the Vedas and the shastras
Lingayatism teaches a path to an individual’s spiritual progress is viewed, and describes it as a six-stage Satsthalasiddhanta. This concept progressively evolves the individual starting with the phase of a devotee,
Shunya in a series of Kannada language texts is equated with the Virashaiva concept of the Supreme. In particular, the Shunya Sampadane texts present the ideas of Allama Prabhuin a form of dialogue, where shunya is that void and distinctions which a spiritual journey seeks to fill and eliminate. It is the described as state of union of one’s soul with the infinite Shiva, the state of blissful moksha.[3
This Lingayat concept is similar to shunya Brahma concept found in certain texts of Vaishnavism, particularly in Odiya, such as the poetic Panchasakhas. It explains the Nirguna Brahman idea of Vedanta, that is the eternal unchanging metaphysical reality as “personified void”.
However, both in Lingayatism and various flavors of Vaishnavism such as Mahima Dharma, the idea of Shunya is closer to the Hindu concept of metaphysical Brahman, rather than to the Śūnyatā concept of Buddhism.[35] However, there is some overlap, such as in the works of Bhima Bhoi.
The Lingayats always wear the Ishtalinga held with a necklace.[2] The Istalinga is made up of light gray slate stone coated with fine durable thick black paste of cow dung ashes mixed with some suitable oil to withstand wear and tear. Sometime it is made up of ashes mixed with clarified butter. The coating is called Kanti (covering)
The Lingayats bury their dead. The dead are buried in the Dhyana mudra (meditating position) with their Ishta linga in their left hand.
FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA
Q.269 Which among the following is/are the examples of the payment banks ?
- Reliance Industries
- Sun Pharmaceuticals
- Paytm
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Payments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is currently limited to ₹1 lakh per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot issue loans and credit cards. Both current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banks. Payments banks can issue services like ATM cards, debit cards, net-banking and mobile-banking. Airtel has launched India’s first live payments bank.[1] Paytm is the second such service to be launched in the country. India Post Payments Bank is the third entity to receive payments bank permit after Bharti Airtel and Paytm. Aditya Birla group earned payments bank permit on 3 March 2017.
The voting rights will be regulated by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
The bank should be fully networked from the beginning. The bank can accept utility bills. It cannot form subsidiaries to undertake non-banking activities.
The bank cannot undertake lending activities.
The banks will be licensed as payments banks under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and will be registered as public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013.
On 19 August 2015, the Reserve Bank of India gave “in-principle” licences to eleven entities to launch payments banks:[12][13]
- Aditya Birla Nuvo
- Airtel M Commerce Services
- Cholamandalam Distribution Services
- Department of Posts
- FINO PayTech
- National Securities Depository
- Reliance Industries
- Sun Pharmaceuticals
- Paytm
- Tech Mahindra
- Vodafone M-Pesa
The “in-principle” license is valid for 18 months within which the entities must fulfil the requirements. They are not allowed to engage in banking activities within the period. The RBI will consider grant full licenses under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, after it is satisfied that the conditions have been fulfilled.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.268 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Central Vigilance Commision ?
- Prime Minister & the Minister of Home Affairs gives recommendation on the appointment of the commissioners
- CVC have the powers to register criminal cases as well as economic crimes
- CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1
Ans. D
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
The Commission shall consist of:
- A Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson;
- Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members;
The CVC is not an investigating agency.
The only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government which is done r.[6]
Corruption investigations against government officials can proceed only after the government permits them. The CVC publishes a list of cases where permissions are pending, some of which may be more than a year old
The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).
The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
The Secretariat consists of a Secretary of the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt of India, one officer of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Govt of India, ten officers of the rank of Director/Deputy Secretary, four Under Secretaries and office staff
- CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC’s advice in corruption cases.[13]
- CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299.[1] Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries.[14]
- CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department.
- CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases.
Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the Committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government
FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE
Q.267 With reference to the Dravidian architecture, What are Agamas ?
- A) These are the collection of the scriptures constituting the methods of temple construction
- B) These are the code of conduct that is to be followed by the Bhikshus
- C) These are the texts describing the discourse of the tirthankara
- D) These are the manuscripts in Indo-Aryan languages describing the spread of the templesof the southern India
Ans. A
Traditional Dravidian architecture and symbolism are also based on Agamas. The Agamas are non-vedic in origin and have been dated either as post-vedic texts or as pre-vedic compositions.The Agamas are a collection of Tamil and Sanskrit scriptures chiefly constituting the methods of temple construction and creation of murti, worship means of deities, philosophical doctrines, meditative practices, attainment of sixfold desires and four kinds of yoga.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE
Q.266 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the scripts/texts of the Dravidian style ?
- Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts describes the art of building in India in south and central India
- Brihat-samhita is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts estimated to be in circulation by 5th to 7th century AD, is a guidebook on Dravidian style of Vastu Shastradesign, construction, sculpture and joinery technique
Isanasivagurudeva paddhati is another text from the 9th century describing the art of building in India in south and central India
In north India, Brihat-samhita by Varāhamihira is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual from 6th century describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples
FRAMED FROM NIOS-INDIAN CULTURE
Q.265 Consider the following :
- Undavalli caves : Madhya Pradesh
- Ramatheertham : Andhra Pradesh
- Varaha Cave Temple : Mamallapuram
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 3
Ans. B
Rock-cut monuments in India
- Aihole has 3 Jaina temple
- Badami Cave Temples
- Bagh Caves
- Ellora Caves has 12 Buddhist, 17 Hindu and 5 Jain temples.[19]
- Kanheri Caves
- Lenyadri Caves
- Mahabalipuram
- Pancha Rathas
- Kazhuku Malai
- Pandavleni Caves
- Pitalkhora
- Undavalli caves, Andhra Pradesh
- Varaha Cave Temple at Mamallapuram
- Masroor Temple at Kangra
- Bojjannakonda Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh
- Guntupalle Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh
- Ramatheertham, Andhra Pradesh
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.264 Which among the following is/are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union ?
- Belarus
- Russia
- Kazakhstan
- Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,3
- B) 3 & 4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. A
It is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia. A treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015.Treaties aiming for Armenia’s and Kyrgyzstan’s accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014, respectively. Armenia’s accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015.Kyrgyzstan’s accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015.[11][12] It participated in the EAEU from the day of its establishment as an acceding state
The day-to-day work of the EAEU is done through the Eurasian Economic Commission (the executive body), which is a supranational body similar to European Commission. There is also a judicial body – the Court of the EAEU
The Eurasian Economic Union is located at the eastern end of Europe, bounded by the Arctic in the north, the Pacific Ocean to the east and East Asia, the Middle East and part of Central Asiato the south.
The council is composed of the Vice Prime Ministers of the member states.
The collegium is composed of twelve commissioners, one of which is the Chairman of the board
FRAMED FROM NIOS- INDIAN CULTURE
Q.263 Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings ?
- Stories of Krishna
- Ragas & Ragnis
- Deeds of Hamza
- Deeds of Babur
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,3
- B) 2,3,4
- C) 3 & 4
- D) Only 4
Ans. C
Rajput painting, also called Rajasthani painting, evolved and flourished in the royal courts of Rajputana in India. Each Rajputana kingdom evolved a distinct style, but with certain common features. Rajput paintings depict a number of themes, events of epics like the Ramayana. Miniatures in manuscripts or single sheets to be kept in albums were the preferred medium of Rajput painting, but many paintings were done on the walls of palaces, inner chambers of the forts, havelis, particularly, the havelis of Shekhawati, the forts and palaces built by ShekhawatRajputs.
The colours were extracted from certain minerals, plant sources, conch shells, and were even derived by processing precious stones. Gold and silver were used. The preparation of desired colours was a lengthy process, sometimes taking weeks. Brushes used were very fine.
Elements, such as distinct portraiture, utilized by popular Mughal artists (Govardhan, Hashim, etc.) are not found in Rajput works. Likewise, Rajput techniques are not predominantly seen in Mughal paintings.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.262 Which among the following can remove cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems ?
- Calcium hypochlorite
- Copper sulphate
- Simazine
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Several chemicals can eliminate cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems. They include: calcium hypochlorite, copper sulphate, cupricide, and simazine.
Cyanobacteria can produce neurotoxins, cytotoxins, endotoxins, and hepatotoxins
Oncolites are sedimentary structures composed of oncoids, which are layered structures formed by cyanobacterial growth. Oncolites are similar to stromatolites, but instead of forming columns, they form approximately spherical structures that were not attached to the underlying substrate as they formed.
Cyanobacteria use the energy of sunlight to drive photosynthesis, a process where the energy of light is used to synthesize organic compounds from carbon dioxide. Because they are aquatic organisms, they typically employ several strategies which are collectively known as a “carbon concentrating mechanism” to aid in the acquisition of inorganic carbon (CO2or bicarbonate).
Cyanobacteria can be found in almost every terrestrial and aquatic habitat—oceans, fresh water, damp soil, temporarily moistened rocks in deserts, bare rock and soil, and even Antarctic rocks. They can occur as planktonic cells or form phototrophic biofilms. They are found in almost every endolithic ecosystem.
A few are endosymbionts in lichens, plants, various protists, or sponges and provide energy for the host. Some live in the fur of sloths, providing a form of camouflage
Aquatic cyanobacteria are known for their extensive and highly visible blooms that can form in both freshwater and marine environments.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.261 Which among the following is/are the right tributary of the river ganga ?
- Kosi
- Gandak
- Yamuna
- Ramganga
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2,3,4
- C) Only 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
Ganga :
>Left tributaries:
q Ramganga
q Gomati
q Ghaghar
q Gandak
q Kosi
>Right tributaries:
- Yamuna
- Son
Hugli
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.260 Which among the following plant(s) is/are considered as the Weeds ?
- Dandelion
- Burdrock
- Amarnath
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Weeds : Dandelion, Burdrock, Lamb’s quarter, Amarnath, Cornockle
Many plants known as weeds can have beneficial properties. A number of weeds, such as the dandelion (Taraxacum) and lamb’s quarter, are edible, and their leaves or roots may be used for food or herbal medicine. Burdock is common over much of the world, and is sometimes used to make soup and medicine in East Asia.
An example of a crop weed that is grown in gardens is the corncockle, (Agrostemma githago), which was a common weed in European wheat fields, but is now sometimes grown as a garden plant.
Weeds may also act as a “living mulch”, providing ground cover that reduces moisture loss and prevents erosion. Weeds may also improve soil fertility; dandelions, for example, bring up nutrients like calcium and nitrogen from deep in the soil with their tap root, and clover hosts nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its roots, fertilizing the soil directly.
Weed control is important in agriculture. Methods include hand cultivation with hoes, powered cultivation with cultivators, smothering with mulch, lethal wilting with high heat, burning, or chemical attack with herbicides.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.259 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve ?
- It is composed of Neyyar & Peppara Wildlife Sanctuaries only
- This biosphere reserve is dominated by Asian elephants & Nilgiri Tahr
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans.D
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve became part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016. Is also under UNESCO’s world list of biosphere reserve
It is composed of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil, Thenmala, Konni, Punalur, Thiruvananthapuram Divisions and Agasthyavanam Special Division in Kerala.[9] Inclusion of adjoining areas of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu has been approved.
ABR includes the Indian Ecoregions of South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, South Western Ghats montane rain forestsand Shola.
Rare animals include the tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr. Agastyamalai is also home to the Kanikaran
Kanikkarans are the Original tribal Settlers in Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.258 Which among the following is/are true in context with the 5-star rated celing fans ?
- These are 50% more energy efficient as compared to the conventional fans
- These are rated at 75 watts as compared to earlier fans at 50 watts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
These fans are 30% more energy efficient as compared to conventional fans
The earlier fans were rated at 75 Watts, but the new fans are rated at 50 Watts (30% savings).
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.257 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Gene Transfer Format ?
- It is a tab-delimited doc format specific to the gene information
- It reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
The Gene transfer format (GTF) is a file format used to hold information about gene structure. It is a tab-delimited text format based on the general feature format (GFF), but contains some additional conventions specific to gene information. A significant feature of the GTF is that it is validatable: given a sequence and a GTF file, one can check that the format is correct.
This significantly reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.256 With reference to the geographic knowledge, what are Phantom islands ?
- A) These are the islands that are situated beyond the continental shelf of the ocean
- B) These are the lost lands that were existing during prehistory, but disappeared as a result of catastrophic geological phenomena
- C) These are the volcanic islands on the edge of the Indian and Burmese tectonic plates.
- D) These are the land masses formerly believed to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge
Ans. D
Phantom islands, as opposed to lost lands, are land masses formerly believed by cartographers to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge. Terra Australis is a phantom continent. While a few phantom islands originated from literary works (an example is Ogygia from Homer’s Odyssey), most phantom islands are the result of navigational errors.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.255 With reference to the news, which of the following is correct with respect to the ADDU Declaration ?
- A) It is the declaration by the BRICS members to improve the global economic situation and reforming financial institutions,
- B) It is a twenty points declaration issued by the SSARC members with the aim of building bridges
- C) It is the declaration in the Paris summit to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions
- D) It is the declaration issued in the Maldives conference highlighting the terrorist & social issues
Ans. B
- Addu is the second largest city of Mamldives (capital is Male), where 17th SAARC conference was held. (September 2011)
- Theme of this Addu summit : Building Bridges.
- The leaders of SAARC Nations, issued a 20-points declaration here, which is known as “Addu Declaration”.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.254 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Generic drugs ?
- These are manufactured by the private companies under the government regulations
- These contain the same active ingredients as brand formulations but with reduced excipients
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
A generic drug is a pharmaceutical drug that is equivalent to a brand-name product in dosage, strength, route of administration, quality, performance, and intended use A generic drug must contain the same active ingredients as the original brand-name formulation. Biopharmaceuticals such as monoclonal antibodies differ biologically from small molecule drugs. Generic versions of these drugs, known as biosimilars, are typically regulated under an extended set of rules. They may not be associated with a particular company, generic drugs are usually subject to government regulations in the countries where they are dispensed. They are labeled with the name of the manufacturer and a generic nonproprietary name such as the United States Adopted Name or international nonproprietary name of the drug. A generic drug must contain the same active ingredients as the original brand-name formulation.
FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICATIONS
Q.253 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Doldrums : 50 N to 50 S
- Horse latitudes : 250 to 350 N & S
- Polar : High poles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Coniferous forests are located between 500& 700 N
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.252 Which among the following languages has been awarded the distinction of classical language ?
- Marathi
- Malayalam
- Kannada
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1 & 2
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
The Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam and Odia. The southern Indian languages are from the Dravidian family. The Dravidian languages are classified in four groups: North, Central (Kolami–Parji), South-Central (Telugu–Kui) and South Dravidian (Tamil-Kannada) Each of the northern Indian languages had different influences. For example, Hindustani was strongly influenced by Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic, leading to the emergence of Modern Standard Hindi and Modern Standard Urdu as registers of the Hindustani language
FRAMED FROM LUCENT & WIKIPEDIA
Q.251 Which among the following is/are correct ?
- Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one eukaryote to another eukaryote only
- Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one animal cell to plant cell
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Vector-mediated gene transfer is carried out either by Agrobacterium-mediated transformation or by use of plant viruses as vectors. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil-borne, Gram-negative bacterium. It is rod shaped and motile, and belongs to the bacterial family of Rhizobiaceae. A. tumefaciens is a phytopathogen, and is treated as the nature’s most effective plant genetic engineer.
FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE
Q.250 Excessive accumulation of nitrates in water body can result in :
- Proliferation of biodiversity
- Algae blooms
- Acidification
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Q.249 Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats?
- A) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ in 2012
- B) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world
- C) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
- D) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves
Ans. D
The range runs north to south along the western edge of the Deccan Plateau, and separates the plateau from a narrow coastal plain, called Konkan, along the Arabian Sea. A total of thirty-nine properties including national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserve forests were designated as world heritage sites – twenty in Kerala, ten in Karnataka, five in Tamil Nadu and four in Maharashtra.
The range starts near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra, south of the Tapti river, and runs approximately 1,600 km (990 mi) through the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu ending at Swamithoppe, near Kanyakumari, at the southern tip of India.
The Western Ghats block southwest monsoon winds from reaching the Deccan Plateau.The average elevation is around 1,200 m (3,900 ft).
The area is one of the world’s ten “Hottest biodiversity hotspots” and has over 7,402 species of flowering plants, 1,814 species of non-flowering plants, 139 mammal species, 508 bird species, 179 amphibian species, 6,000 insects species and 290 freshwater fish species; it is likely that many undiscovered species live in the Western Ghats. At least 325 globally threatened species occur in the Western Ghats.
The Western Ghats are the mountainous faulted and eroded edge of the Deccan Plateau.
Basalt is the predominant rock found in the hills reaching a thickness of 3 km (2 mi). Other rock types found are charnockites, granite gneiss, khondalites, leptynites, metamorphic gneisses with detached occurrences of crystalline limestone, iron ore, dolerites and anorthosites. Residual laterite and bauxite ores are also found in the southern hills.
The Western Ghats extend from the Satpura Range in the north, stretching from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu. It traverses south past the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala. Major gaps in the range are the Goa Gap, between the Maharashtra and Karnataka sections, and the Palghat Gap on the Tamil Nadu and Kerala border between the Nilgiri Hills and the Anaimalai Hills.
The northern portion of the narrow coastal plain between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea is known as the Konkan, the central portion is called Kanara and the southern portion is called Malabar. The foothill region east of the Ghats in Maharashtra is known as Desh, while the eastern foothills of the central Karnataka state is known as Malenadu.[13] The range is known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Western Ghats meets the Eastern Ghats at Nilgiris in northwestern Tamil Nadu. Nilgiris connects Biligiriranga Hills in southeastern Karnataka with the Shevaroys and Tirumala hills. South of the Palghat Gap are the Anamala Hills, located in western Tamil Nadu and Kerala with smaller ranges further south, including the Cardamom Hills, then Aryankavu pass, Aralvaimozhi pass near Kanyakumari. In the southern part of the range is Anamudi (2,695 metres (8,842 ft)), the highest peak in Western Ghats.
The Western Ghats form one of the four watersheds of India, feeding the perennial rivers of India. The major river systems originating in the Western Ghats include Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna, Thamiraparani and Tungabhadra. Majority of streams draining the Western Ghats join these rivers and carry large volume of water during the monsoon months. These rivers flow to the east due to the gradient of the land and drain out into the Bay of Bengal. Major tributaries include Kali, Bhadra, Bhavani, Bhima, Malaprabha, Ghataprabha, Hemavathi and Kabini. Periyar, Bharathappuzha, Netravati, Sharavathi, Mandovi and Zuari rivers flow westwards towards the Western Ghats, draining into the Arabian Sea and are fast-moving, owing to the steeper gradient.
Most notable of these projects are the Koyna in Maharashtra, Linganmakki and Sivasamudram in Karnataka, Mettur and Pykara in Tamil Nadu, Parambikulam and Idukki in Kerala
Talakaveri is the source of the river Kaveri and the Kuduremukha range is the source of the Tungabhadra. Western Ghats have several man-made lakes and reservoirs with major lakes at Ooty (34 hectares (84 acres)) in Nilgiris, Kodaikanal (26 hectares (64 acres)) and Berijam in Palani Hills, Pookode lake, Devikulam (6 hectares (15 acres)) and Letchmi (2 hectares (4.9 acres)) in Kerala.
The eastern region of the Western Ghats which lie in the rain shadow, receive far less rainfall of about 100 centimetres (39 in) resulting in an average rainfall of 250 centimetres (98 in) across regions.
The Western Ghats are home to four tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregions – the North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, North Western Ghats montane rain forests, South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, and South Western Ghats montane rain forests.
Above 1,000 meters are the South Western Ghats montane rain forests, also cooler and wetter than the surrounding lowland forests, and dominated by evergreen trees, although some montane grasslands and stunted forests can be found at the highest elevations. The South Western Ghats montane rain forests are the most species-rich ecologic region in peninsular India; eighty percent of the flowering plant species of the entire Western Ghats range are found in this ecologic region.
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve comprising 5,500 square kilometres (2,100 sq mi) of the evergreen forests of Nagarahole and deciduous forests of Bandipur in Karnataka, adjoining regions of Wayanad-Mukurthi in Kerala and Mudumalai National Park-Sathyamangalam in Tamil Nadu forms the largest contiguous protected area in the Western Ghats.[20] Silent Valley in Kerala is among the last tracts of virgin tropical evergreen forest in India
There are at least 139 mammal species. Of the 16 endemic mammals, 13 are threatened and amongst the 32 threatened species include the critically endangered Malabar large-spotted civet, the endangered lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri tahr, Bengal tiger and Indian elephants, the vulnerable Indian leopard, Nilgiri langur and gaur
There are at least 16 species of birds endemic to the Western Ghats including the endangered rufous-breasted laughingthrush, the vulnerable Nilgiri wood-pigeon, white-bellied shortwing and broad-tailed grassbird, the near threatenedgrey-breasted laughingthrush, black-and-rufous flycatcher, Nilgiri flycatcher, and Nilgiri pipit, and the least concern Malabar (blue-winged) parakeet, Malabar grey hornbill, white-bellied treepie, grey-headed bulbul, rufous babbler, Wynaad laughingthrush, white-bellied blue-flycatcher and the crimson-backed sunbird.
There are at least 139 mammal species. Of the 16 endemic mammals, 13 are threatened and amongst the 32 threatened species include the critically endangered Malabar large-spotted civet, the endangered lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri tahr, Bengal tiger and Indian elephants, the vulnerable Indian leopard, Nilgiri langur and gaur.
Of the 7,402 species of flowering plants occurring in the Western Ghats, 5,588 species are native or indigenous and 376 are exotics naturalised and 1,438 species are cultivated or planted as ornamentals. Among the indigenous species, 2,253 species are endemic to India and of them, 1,273 species are exclusively confined to the Western Ghats. Apart from 593 confirmed subspecies and varieties; 66 species, 5 subspecies and 14 varieties of doubtful occurrence are also reported and therefore amounting 8,080 taxa of flowering plants
Q.248 Which among the following creeks is not associated with the state of Gujarat ?
- A) Kori creek
- B) Godai creek
- C) Kajhar creek
- D) Sir creek
Ans. B
Creek (tidal), an inlet of the sea, narrower than a cove
Sir creek : is a 96 km (60 mi) tidal estuary on the border of India and Pakistan. The creek, which opens up into the Arabian Sea, divides the Gujarat state of Indiafrom the Sindh province of Pakistan.
The Kori Creek : is a tidal creek in the Rann of Kachchh region of the Indian state of Gujarat. This region belonging to India is not in dispute as the international border runs north of it. The Sir Creek, lying to the northwest of Kori, is disputed between India and Pakistan.
FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS
Q.247 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Corporate bond ?
- It is issued by the corporation with maturity shorter than one year
- These are traded in decentralized & over-the-counter markets
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
A corporate bond is a bond issued by a corporation in order to raise financing for a variety of reasons such as to ongoing operations, M&A, or to expand business.The term is usually applied to longer-term debt instruments, with maturity of at least one year. Corporate debt instruments with maturity shorter than one year are referred to as commercial paper. According to their credit rating. Bonds rated AAA, AA, A, and BBB are High Grade, while bonds rated BB and below are High Yield. Foreign corporates issuing bonds in the US Dollar market are called Yankees and their bonds are Yankee bonds.
FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS
Q.246 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Central Employment Guarantee Council ?
- It has been created under the separate act of the Parliament
- The council must be presided by the Governor of the central bank of India
- Members of the council are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- It is headed by the ministry of the rural development
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 4
- B) 1 & 4
- C) 1,2,4
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. A
It is the apex body under MNREGA
Works as MNREGA watchdog
Tenure of the members is 1 year
Responsible for central monitoring & evaluation system in MNREGA
It is headed by the ministry of the rural development
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.245 Which among the following are the sources of Bio-asphalt ?
- Natural tree
- Gum resins
- Molasses
- Waste of canola oil
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1,2,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
It is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources Non-petroleum based bitumen binders can be colored, which can reduce the temperatures of road surfaces and reduce the Urban heat islands. Bitumen can also be made from waste vacuum tower bottoms produced in the process of cleaning used motor oils, which are normally burned or dumped into land fills.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.244 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Periyar river ?
- Edamala
- Gharni
- Mullayar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
-Left: Cheruthoni
– right Mullayar,Perinjankutti,Muthirapuzha,Edamala
Periyar river is the longest river and the river with the largest discharge potential in the Indian state of Kerala.It is one of the few perennial rivers in the region and provides drinking water for several major towns.
The source of the Periyar lies high in the Western Ghats
FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE
Q.243 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the coliform bacteria?
- These are present in large numbers in the feces of cold-blooded animals
- These are restricted to the aquatic environment
- These are the common indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Coliform bacteria are defined as rod-shaped Gram-negative non-spore forming and motile or non-motile bacteria which can ferment lactosewith the production of acid and gas when incubated at 35–37°C. They are a commonly used indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water. Coliforms can be found in the aquatic environment, in soil and on vegetation; they are universally present in large numbers in the feces of warm-blooded animals. Whilst coliforms themselves are not normally causes of serious illness, they are easy to culture, and their presence is used to indicate that other pathogenic organisms of fecal origin may be present. Such pathogens include disease-causing bacteria, viruses, or protozoa and many multicellular parasites. Coliform procedures are performed in aerobic or anaerobic conditions.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.242 Consider the following :
- Phawngpui Tlang National park : Tripura
- Dzukou Valley : Manipur
- Balphakram National Park : Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. A
Phawngpui Tlang National park : Mizoram
Mizoram :
The general geology of western Mizoram consists of repetitive succession of Neogene sedimentary rocks of Surma Group and Tipam Formation viz. sandstone, siltstone, mudstone and rare pockets of shell limestone. The eastern part is Barail Group.Mizoram, lies in seismic zone V, according to the India Meteorological Department; as with other northeastern states of India, this means the state has the highest risk of earthquakes relative to other parts of India. > The Palak lake is the biggest in Mizoram and covers 30 hectares (74 acres). > Mizoram is also called as peninsula state as it has 3 sides covered with international land and one side covered with domestic land. > Bamboo is common in the state, typically intermixed with other forest vegetation; about 9,245 km2 (44%) of state’s area is bamboo bearing. > The state has two national parks and six wildlife sanctuaries – Blue Mountain (Phawngpui) National Park, Dampa Tiger Reserve (largest), Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary, Murlen National Park, Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary, Tawi Wildlife Sanctuary, Khawnglung Wildlife Sanctuary, and Thorangtlang Wildlife Sanctuary.
Manipur :
It is bounded by Nagaland to the north, Mizoram to the south, and Assam to the west; Burma (Myanmar) lies to its east. has a population of almost 3 million, including the Meitei, who are the majority group in the state; the [Zo/Zomi] people such as Paite, Mizo, Lushai, Hmar, Vaiphei, Simte, Zou, Gangte, Teddim, Kuki, Naga, and Pangalpeoples, who speak a variety of Sino-Tibetan languages. The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai. > The rivers draining the Manipur Hills are comparatively young, due to the hilly terrain through which they flow. These rivers are corrosive and assume turbulent form in the rainy season. Important rivers draining the western area include the Maku, Barak, Jiri, Irang and Leimatak. >Rivers draining the eastern part of the state, the Yu River Basin, include the Chamu, Khunou and other short streams. > The Loktak lake is an important feature of the central plain
Meghalaya :
The state is bounded to the south by the Bangladeshi divisions of Mymensingh and Sylhet, to the west by the Bangladeshi division of Rangpur, and to the north and east by India’s State of Assam. > Meghalaya has historically followed a matrilineal system where the lineage and inheritance are traced through women; the youngest daughter inherits all wealth and she also takes care of her parents > Rock formations contain rich deposits of valuable minerals like coal, limestone, uranium and sillimanite. > Meghalaya has many rivers. Most of these are rainfed and seasonal. The important rivers in the Garo Hills region are Daring, Sanda, Bandra, Bhogai, Dareng, Simsang, Nitai and the Bhupai. In the central and eastern sections of the plateau, the important rivers are Khri, Digaru, Umiam, Kynshi (Jadukata), Mawpa, Umiam or Barapani, Umngot and Myntdu. In the southern Khasi Hills region, these rivers have created deep gorges and several beautiful waterfalls. > The central part of the plateau comprising the Khasi Hills has the highest elevations, followed by the eastern section comprising the Jaintia Hills region. The highest point in Meghalaya is Shillong Peak, > The great Indian hornbill is the largest bird in Meghalaya. > The hoolock gibbon is found in all districts of Meghalaya > The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve in the West Garo Hills and the Balphakram National Park in the South Garo Hills are considered to be the most biodiversity-rich sites in Meghalaya. > In addition, Meghalaya has three wildlife sanctuaries. These are the Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary, the Siju Sanctuary and the Bhagmara Sanctuary, which is also the home of the insect eating pitcher plant Nepenthes khasiana.
FRAMED FROM NCERT GEOGRAPHY
Q.241 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change
- COP 11 : Paris treaty
- COP1 : Minimata convention on mercury
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. B
COP 11 : Montreal , It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005, in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. It was the first Meeting of the Parties (CMP 1) to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997. It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever.
FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT
Q.240 With reference to the S-band spectrum, consider the following statements :
- It is part of the microwave & Infrared band of the electromagnetic spectrum
- It is standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz,
- The S band is used by all communications satellites to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
The S band is part of the microwave band of the electromagnetic spectrum. It is defined by an IEEE standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, crossing the conventional boundary between UHF and SHF at 3.0 GHz. The S band is used by weather radar, surface ship radar, and some communications satellites, especially those used by NASA to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. The 10 cm radar short-band ranges roughly from 1.55 to 5.2 GHz. In some countries, S band is used for Direct-to-Home satellite television (unlike similar services in most countries, which use Ku band). The frequency typically allocated for this service is 2.5 to 2.7 GHz (LOF 1.570 GHz).
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT
Q.239 With reference to the Vote of No-confidence, consider the following statements :
- It shows disapproval & results in the resignation of ministers
- It is directed against the entire cabinet but not against an individual minister
- No-confidence motions may not require reasons for the motion to be specified
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. C
No Confidence” may lead to compulsory resignation of the council of ministers or other position-holder(s), whereas “Censure” is meant to show disapproval and does not result in the resignation of ministers. The censure motion can be against an individual minister or a group of ministers, but the no-confidence motion is directed against the entire cabinet censure motions may need to state the reasons for the motion while no-confidence motions may not require reasons to be specified. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Parliament of India). The motion is admitted for discussion when a minimum of 50 members of the house support the motion. With the anti-defection law, Vote of no-confidence has no relevance left in case the majority party has an absolute majority in the House. If the majority party (with an absolute majority in the House) issues whip to vote party members in favor of the Government, then it is impossible to remove the Government by no-confidence motion. Hence the no-confidence exercise of House merely becomes the no-confidence exercise of the Party.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.238 Which of the following determines the amount of phytoplanktons in the ocean water ?
- Ocean Currents
- Temperature & Salinity
- Depth of ocean water
- Length of day & time
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,3
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
These are the autotrophic (self-feeding) components of the plankton community and a key part of oceans, seas and freshwater basin ecosystems. when present in high enough numbers, some varieties may be noticeable as colored patches on the water surface due to the presence of chlorophyll within their cells and accessory pigments (such as phycobiliproteins or xanthophylls) in some species. Phytoplankton are photosynthesizing microscopic organisms that inhabit the upper sunlit layer of almost all oceans and bodies of fresh water on Earth. They are agents for “primary production,” the creation of organic compounds from carbon dioxide dissolved in the water, a process that sustains the aquatic food web In terms of numbers, the most important groups of phytoplankton include the diatoms, cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates, although many other groups of algae are represented. In oligotrophicoceanic regions such as the Sargasso Sea or the South Pacific Gyre, phytoplankton is dominated by the small sized cells, called picoplankton and nanoplankton (also referred to as picoflagellates and nanoflagellates), mostly composed of cyanobacteria(Prochlorococcus, Synechococcus) and picoeucaryotes such as Micromonas. Phytoplankton are crucially dependent on minerals. These are primarily macronutrients such as nitrate, phosphate or silicic acid, whose availability is governed by the balance between the so-called biological pump and upwelling of deep, nutrient-rich waters. However, across large regions of the World Ocean such as the Southern Ocean, phytoplankton are also limited by the lack of the micronutrient iron. Phytoplankton depend on Vitamin B for survival. Areas in the ocean have been identified as having a major lack of Vitamin B, and correspondingly, phytoplankton Phytoplankton absorb energy from the Sun and nutrients from the water to produce their own food. In the process of photosynthesis, phytoplankton release molecular oxygen (O 2) into the water. Phytoplankton is used as a foodstock for the production of rotifers,[49] which are in turn used to feed other organisms. Phytoplankton is also used to feed many varieties of aquacultured molluscs, including pearl oysters and giant clams.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.237 Which among the following components is/are not the component(s) of the Polymetallic nodules ?
- Iron
- Mercury
- Molybdenum
- Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2 & 4
- C) 1 & 4
- D) Only 3 & 4
Ans. B
Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea. The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of contract between Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India and the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for exploration of Polymetallic Nodules for a further period of 5 years (2017-22). The earlier contract is expiring on 24th March 2017. Composition: Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt, lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt and copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.236 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Seagrass ?
- Seagrass beds are productive ecosystems & used as fertilizer for sandy soil
- Excessive input of nutrients are toxic to seagrasses
- It is used in furniture, and woven like rattan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Seagrass beds are productive ecosystems & historically it was collected as fertilizer for sandy soil Seagrasses are in global decline, with some 30,000 km2 (12,000 sq mi) lost during recent decades. The main cause is human disturbance, most notably eutrophication, mechanical destruction of habitat, and overfishing. Excessive input of nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus) is directly toxic to seagrasses, but most importantly, it stimulates the growth of epiphytic and free-floating macro- and micro-algae. This weakens the sunlight, reducing the photosynthesis that nourishes the seagrass and the primary production results. Historically, seagrasses were collected as fertilizer for sandy soil. This was an important use in the Ria de Aveiro, Portugal, where the plants collected were known as moliço. In the early 20th century, in France and, to a lesser extent, the Channel Islands, dried seagrasses were used as a mattress (paillasse) filling – such mattresses were in high demand by French forces during World War I. It was also used for bandages and other purposes. Currently, seagrass is used in furniture, and woven like rattan.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.235 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bio banks ?
- It is an organized collection of only human biological material for research purposes
- Population-based biobanks need particular hospital affiliation to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It as “an organized collection of human biological material and associated information stored for one or more research purposes”. Collections of plant, animal, microbe, and other nonhuman materials may also be described as biobanks but in some discussions the term is reserved for human specimens. Disease-oriented biobanks usually have a hospital affiliation through which they collect samples representing a variety of diseases, perhaps to look for biomarkers affiliated with disease.Population-based biobanks need no particular hospital affiliation because they take samples from large numbers of all kinds of people, perhaps to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility in a general population.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.234 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Clonal Seed production ?
- The genotype of the embryo & the resulting plant will be same as the seed parent
- It is a type of reproduction in which seeds are formed without union of gamets
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.233 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Manjra river ?
- Teru
- Gharni
- Lendi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Manjiira is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 metres (2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River.
It flows on the Balaghat plateau along with its tributaries: Terna, Tawarja and Gharni. The other three tributaries of Manjara are Manyad, Teru and Lendi which flow on the northern plains.
FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA
Q.232 With reference to the Indian National Movement, what was Dharsana satyagraha ?
- A) It was the movement by the peasants against the land lords in Bengal
- B) It was the protest against prejudice and discrimination towards brahmins
- C) It aimed at removing the British Empire from power by boycotting British products
- D) It was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India
Ans. D
Dharasana Satyagraha was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India in May, 1930. Following the conclusion of the Salt March to Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi chose a non-violent raid of the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat as the next protest against British rule. Hundreds of satyagrahis were beaten by soldiers under British command at Dharasana. The ensuing publicity attracted world attention to the Indian independence movement and brought into question the legitimacy of British rule in India.
FRAMED FROM MAPS PORTION
Q.231 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Kavaratti : Tamil Nadu
- Nilgiris : Western ghats
- Karaikal : Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
Kavaratti : Kerala
Karaikal : Tamil Nadu
Nilgiris : Western Ghats
FRAMED FROM CLASS 12TH BIOLOGY
Q.230 Under IUCN Manatee has been classified under which category ?
- A) Endangered
- B) Vulberable
- C) Extinct
- D) Critically endangered
Ans. A
They are large, fully aquatic, mostly herbivorous marine mammals sometimes known as sea cows All three species of manatee are listed by the World Conservation Union as vulnerable to extinction. It is illegal under federal and Florida law to injure or harm a manatee. They are classified as “endangered” by both the state and the federal governments. Manatees inhabit the shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers of the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico (T. manatus, West Indian manatee), the Amazon basin (T. inunguis, Amazonian manatee), and West Africa (T. senegalensis, West African manatee). West Indian manatees prefer warmer temperatures and are known to congregate in shallow waters. They frequently migrate through brackish water estuaries to freshwater springs. They cannot survive below 15 °C (60 °F). Their natural source for warmth during winter is warm, spring-fed rivers.
FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICTIONS
Q.229 Consider the following :
- Ferrel cell : Intertropical Convergence Zone
- Hadley cell : Horse latitude
- Polar cell : Polar front
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. B
Hadley cell : Intertropical Convergence Zone
Ferrel cell : Horse latitude
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.228 Consider the following :
- Nilgiri biosphere reserve : Nilgiri tahr & Lion tailed macaque
- Nanda devi : Snow leopard & Himalayan Black bear
- Gulf of mannar : Dugong
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Other biosphere reserves :
Nokrek : Red panda
Manas : Golden Langur, Red Panda
Simlipal : Gaur, Royal Bengal tiger , Asian elephant
Dihang-Dibang : Mishmi Takin, Musk deer
Pachmarhi biosphere reserve : flying squirrel & Giant squirrel
Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve : Four-horned antelope, Indian wild dog, Sarus crane, White-rumped vulture, Philautus sanctisilvaticus(Sacred grove bush frog)
Great Rann of Kutch : Indian wild ass
Cold Desert : Indian wild ass
Khangchendzonga : Snow leopard, red panda
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve : Nilgiri tahr, elephants
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Saltwater crocodile
Dibru-Saikhowa : Golden langur
Seshachalam Hills : Slender Loris
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.227 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Sambhar lake ?
- It is an elliptically shaped lake surrounded on all sides by the Himalayas
- It is not part of the Ganga river basin area
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
The lake receives water from an endorheic basin with 5700 square km catchment area.
It is not part of the Ganga river basin area and is geographically a separate land locked river basin.
The lake is actually an extensive saline wetland, with water depths fluctuating from as few as 60 centimetres (24 in) during the dry season to about 3 meters (10 ft) after the monsoon season.
It occupies an area of 190 to 230 square kilometers, based on the season.
It is an elliptically shaped lake 35.5 km long with a breadth varying between 3 km and 11 km.
It is located in Nagaur and Jaipur districts and it also borders the Ajmer district.
The circumference of the lake is 96 km, surrounded on all sides by the Aravali hills.
The Sambhar lake basin is divided by a 5.1 km long dam made of sandstone.
It is India’s largest saline lake and is the source of most of Rajasthan’s salt production.
Sambhar has been designated as a Ramsar site (recognized wetland of international importance) because the wetland is a key wintering area for tens of thousands of flamingos and other birds that migrate from northern Asia.
The specialized algae and bacteria growing in the lake provide striking water colours and support the lake ecology that, in turn, sustains the migrating waterfowl. There is other wildlife in the nearby forests, where Nilgai move freely along with deer and foxes. The salt (NaCl) concentration in this lake water differs with season.
The salt concentration in the pans Kyars varies and accordingly the color ranges from green, orange, pink, purple pink, red due to the bloom of haloalkaliphilic microorganisms.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.226 Protein extract of which of the following is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds ?
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Algae
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 1 & 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to edible unicellular microorganisms. The biomass or protein extract from pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria may be used as an ingredient or a substitute for protein-rich foods, and is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds. Single-cell proteins develop when microbes ferment waste materials (including wood, straw, cannery, and food-processing wastes, residues from alcohol production, hydrocarbons, or human and animal excreta).[17] The problem with extracting single-cell proteins from the wastes is the dilution and cost.
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY
Q.225 Which among the following is/are classified as Fungus ?
- Molds
- Yeast
- Slime Molds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Fungus is any member of the group of eukaryotic organisms that includes microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as the more familiar mushrooms. These organisms are classified as a kingdom, Fungi, which is separate from the other eukaryotic life kingdoms of plants and animals.
A characteristic that places fungi in a different kingdom from plants, bacteria, and some protists is chitin in their cell walls. Similar to animals, fungi are heterotrophs; they acquire their food by absorbing dissolved molecules, typically by secreting digestive enzymes into their environment. Fungi do not photosynthesise.
Fungi are the principal decomposers in ecological systems.
Like plants, fungi often grow in soil and, in the case of mushrooms, form conspicuous fruit bodies, which sometimes resemble plants such as mosses. The fungi are now considered a separate kingdom, distinct from both plants and animals,
With animals: Fungi lack chloroplasts and are heterotrophic organisms and so require preformed organic compounds as energy sources.
With plants: Fungi have a cell wall and vacuoles.They reproduce by both sexual and asexual means, and like basal plant groups (such as ferns and mosses) produce spores. Similar to mosses and algae, fungi typically have haploid nuclei.
similar-looking organisms, such as filamentous green algae, grow by repeated cell division within a chain of cells.There are also single-celled fungi (yeasts) that do not form hyphae, and some fungi have both hyphal and yeast forms
The fungal cell wall is composed of glucans and chitin; while glucans are also found in plants and chitin in the exoskeleton of arthropods.
Most fungi lack an efficient system for the long-distance transport of water and nutrients, such as the xylem and phloem in many plants. To overcome this limitation, some fungi, such as Armillaria, form rhizomorphs,which resemble and perform functions similar to the roots of plants.
Most food-spoilage molds, most plant pathogenic fungi, and the beer, wine, and bread yeasts.
water molds (oomycetes) and hyphochytrids (both Stramenopiles) were formerly classified in the kingdom Fungi, in groups like Mastigomycotina, Gymnomycota and Phycomycetes. The slime molds were studied also as protozoans, leading to a ambiregnal, duplicated taxonomy.
Lichens occur in every ecosystem on all continents, play a key role in soil formation and the initiation of biological succession,[154] and are prominent in some extreme environments, including polar, alpine, and semiarid desert regions.They are able to grow on inhospitable surfaces, including bare soil, rocks, tree bark, wood, shells, barnacles and leaves
Certain types of cheeses require inoculation of milk curds with fungal species that impart a unique flavor and texture to the cheese. Examples include the blue color in cheeses such as Stilton or Roquefort, which are made by inoculation with Penicillium roqueforti. Molds used in cheese production are non-toxic and are thus safe for human consumption;
Many mushroom species are poisonous to humans, with toxicities ranging from slight digestive problems or allergic reactions as well as hallucinations to severe organ failures and death.
Fungi are used extensively to produce industrial chemicals like citric, gluconic, lactic, and malic acids.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.224 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Aligarh movement ?
- The impact of Aligarh Movement was confined to the Northern India only
- The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Arabic literature.
- It aimed to establish a modern system of education for the Muslim population of British India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
The Aligarh Movement is the movement to establish a modern system of education for the Muslim population of British India, during the later decades of the 19th century.The movement′s name derives from the fact that its core and origins lay in the city of Aligarh in Northern India and, in particular, with the foundation of: the Muhammadan Anglo Oriental Collegiate School.The founder of the original college, and the other educational institutions that developed from it, was Sir Syed Ahmad Khan. He became the leading light of the wider Aligarh Movement.
It influenced a number of other contemporary movements to a great extent that it caused the emergence of other socio-religious movements during the 19th century. The impact of Aligarh Movement was not confined to the Northern India only, but its expansion could be seen on the other regions of the Indian sub-continent during the 20th century The movement was political in nature from the very beginning.The Deoband school was opposed to the movement as Aligarh Movement was pro British.
The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Urdu literature. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and his association left the old style of writing in the Urdu language, which was rhetorical and academic, and started a simple style which helped Muslims to understand the main purpose of the movement. Sir Syed Ahmed was the central figure behind this awakening..
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY
Q.223 Consider the following :
- Poona Sarvajanik Sabha : Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
- Deccan Education Society : Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- Prarthana Samaj : Atmaran Pandurang
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
Prarthana Samaj, or “Prayer Society” in Sanskrit, was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay based on earlier reform movements. Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang with the help of Keshav Chandra Sen in 1867, with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined. The main reformers were the intellectuals who advocated reforms of the social system of the Hindus.
The precursor of the Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai was the Paramahamsa Sabha, a secret society for the furtherance of liberal ideas by Ram Balkrishna Jaykar and others in Mumbai. It was secret in order to avoid the wrath of the powerful and orthodox elements of society
the primary focus of the Prarthana Samaj was on social and cultural reform.
Deccan Education Society :
In 1880 Vishnushastri Chiplunkar and Bal Gangadhar Tilak established the New English School, one of the first native-run schools offering Western education in Pune.[1] In 1884 they created the Deccan Education Society[2][3] with Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Mahadev Ballal Namjoshi, V. S. Apte, V. B. Kelkar, M. S. Gole and N. K. Dharap. Soon afterwards,they established Fergusson College with Tilak and Agharkar as early lecturers.
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha :
It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants’ legal rights. The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et al.
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY
Q.222 Which among the following plants can be regarded as a haven for people with pollen allergies ?
- Summer grass
- Oak
- Arizona
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
Pollen: Pollen itself is not the male gamete.Each pollen grain contains vegetative (non-reproductive) cells (only a single cell in most flowering plants but several in other seed plants) and a generative (reproductive) cell. In flowering plants the vegetative tube cell produces the pollen tube, and the generative cell divides to form the two sperm cell Non-flowering seed plants (e.g. pine trees) are characteristically anemophilous. Anemophilous flowering plants generally have inconspicuous flowers. Entomophilous (literally insect-loving) plants produce pollen that is relatively heavy, sticky and protein-rich, for dispersal by insect pollinators attracted to their flowers. Many insects and some mitesare specialized to feed on pollen, and are called palynivores. Anemophilous spring blooming plants such as oak, birch, hickory, pecan, and early summer grasses may also induce pollen allergies. Most cultivated plants with showy flowers are entomophilous and do not cause pollen allergies. Arizona was once regarded as a haven for people with pollen allergies, although several ragweed species grow in the desert. However, as suburbs grew and people began establishing irrigated lawns and gardens, more irritating species of ragweed gained a foothold and Arizona lost its claim of freedom from hay fever.
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY
Q.221 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Micropropagation ?
- It is the only viable method of regenerating genetically modified cells after protoplast fusion.
- All the progeny plants are vulnerable to the same infections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Micropropagation has a number of advantages over traditional plant propagation techniques:
• The main advantage of micropropagation is the production of many plants that are clones of each other.
• Micropropagation can be used to produce disease-free plants.
• It can have an extraordinarily high fecundity rate, producing thousands of propagules while conventional techniques might only produce a fraction of this number.
• It is the only viable method of regenerating genetically modified cells or cells after protoplast fusion.
• It is useful in multiplying plants which produce seeds in uneconomical amounts, or when plants are sterile and do not produce viable seeds or when seed cannot be stored (see recalcitrant seeds).
• Micropropagation often produces more robust plants, leading to accelerated growth compared to similar plants produced by conventional methods – like seeds or cuttings.
• Some plants with very small seeds, including most orchids, are most reliably grown from seed in sterile culture.
• A greater number of plants can be produced per square meter and the propagules can be stored longer and in a smaller area.
Micropropagation is not always the perfect means of multiplying plants. Conditions that limits its use include:
• It is very expensive, and can have a labour cost of more than 70%.
• A monoculture is produced after micropropagation, leading to a lack of overall disease resilience, as all progeny plants may be vulnerable to the same infections.
• An infected plant sample can produce infected progeny. This is uncommon as the stock plants are carefully screened and vetted to prevent culturing plants infected with virus or fungus.
• Not all plants can be successfully tissue cultured, often because the proper medium for growth is not known or the plants produce secondary metabolic chemicals that stunt or kill the explant.
• Sometimes plants or cultivars do not come true to type after being tissue cultured. This is often dependent on the type of explant material utilized during the initiation phase or the result of the age of the cell or propagule line.
Some plants are very difficult to disinfect of fungal organism.
FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE
Q.220 Which among the following is/are the features that characterizes the Pioneer species ?
- Most of them are hardy species with non-photosynthetic activity
- The plants that are often pioneer species tend to be insect-pollinated
- Orchids, lichens & Algae are the examples of the pioneer species
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
Examples of the plants and organism that colonize such areas are pioneer species: • Barren sand – lyme grass (Leymus arenarius), sea couch grass (Agropyron pungens), Marram grass (Ammophila breviligulata) • Salt water – green algae, marine eel grass (Zostera spp.), pickleweed (Salicornia virginica), and cordgrass (hybrid Spartina × townsendii) and (Spartina anglica). • Clear water – algae, mosses, freshwater eel grass (Vallisneria americana). • Solidified lava flows – in Hawaii: swordfern (Polystichum munitum), ‘ōhi‘a lehua (Metrosideros polymorpha), ‘ohelo (Vaccinium reticulatum) and ‘āma‘u (Sadleria cyatheoides);[3] on Surtsey: lichen (Stereocaulon vesuvianum and Placopsis gelida) and moss (Racomitriumericoides);[4] green algae • Disturbed areas such as construction sites, road cuttings and verges, cultivated lands – Buddleia davidii, Nettles[clarification needed], Tagetes minuta, Bidens pilosa, Argemone mexicana • Bare clay – Orchids • Mountains – Lichens Pioneer species are hardy species which are the first to colonize previously disrupted or damaged ecosystems, beginning a chain of ecological succession that ultimately leads to a more biodiverse steady-state ecosystem Since some uncolonized land may have thin, poor quality soils with few nutrients, pioneer species are often hardy plants with adaptations such as long roots, root nodes containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and leaves that employ transpiration. They are often photosynthetic plants, as no other source of energy (such as other species) except light energy is often available in the early stages of succession, thus making it less likely for a pioneer species to be non-photosynthetic. The plants that are often pioneer species also tend to be wind-pollinated rather than insect-pollinated, Pioneering fauna will colonize an area only after flora and fungi have inhabited the area. Soil fauna, ranging from microscopic protists to larger invertebrates, have a role in soil formation and nutrient cycling. Bacteria and fungi are the most important groups in the breakdown of organic detritus left by primary producing plants such as skeletal soil, moss and algae. Though vertebrates in general would not be considered pioneer species, there are exceptions Pioneer species can also be found in secondary succession, such as an established ecosystem being reduced by an event such as: a forest fire, deforestation, or clearing; quickly colonizing open spaces which previously supported vegetation. Common examples of the plants in such areas include • Raspberry – Rubus spp. • Heaths – Ericaceae spp. • Graminoids, forbs, and wildflowers – native, introduced, and invasive species: such as fire dependent seed, cone, and resprouter chaparral genera.
FRAMED FROM Wikipedia
Q.219 Which among the following plants is/are classified under the category of aquatic plants ?
- Duckweed
- Water Hyacinth
- Lotus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
One of the largest aquatic plants in the world is the Amazon water lily; one of the smallest is the minute duckweed. Many small aquatic animals use plants like duckweed for a home, or for protection from predators, but areas with more vegetation are likely to have more predators. Some other familiar examples of aquatic plants might include floating heart, water lily, lotus, and water hyacinth. Some aquatic plants are used by humans as a food source. Examples include wild rice (Zizania), water caltrop (Trapa natans), Chinese water chestnut (Eleocharis dulcis), Indian lotus (Nelumbo nucifera), water spinach (Ipomoea aquatica), and watercress (Rorippa nasturtium-aquaticum).
FRAMED FROM Live Mint
Q.218 Which among the following equipment(s) comes under the classification of energy efficient schemes ?
- LED bulbs
- Fans
3.LED tube lights
- Street lights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,3
- B) Only 1 & 3
- C) 1,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Solar water pump sets : At present, solar water pumping system market in India is subsidy driven. Non-subsidized pumps accounts for marginal share in the market. High capital cost is the major hurdle in the growth of solar water pumping system market. Regardless of subsidies provided by the government, solar pumps are still unaffordable for small farmers due to their high upfront cost in comparison to diesel and electric pumps. With this background, EESL intends to develop a programme to provide a reliable source of supply to agricultural pump sets which are currently being operated by diesel generators or through grid supply by way of solar mini grids. By developing such renewable energy based grids, farmers will be able to receive considerable revenue on monthly basis by selling the excess power to the grid for a period of 25 years. The benefits of the programme to the farmers includes social emancipation as well as contribution to the society by means of water conservation
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.217 With reference to the news there was a term “TERM CELLS”, What is this ?
- A) It is an alternative of Stem cells that can differentiate into specialized cells
- B) It is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications
- C) These are the tiny cells in the form of pins that are used in laptops, torches, etc.
- D) It has been set up by the government to combat illegal trafficking
Ans. B
Telecom Enforcement Resource and Monitoring (TERM), formerly known as Vigilance Telecom Monitoring (VTM), is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications (DoT) TERM is made up of 34 Cells in India’s 22 telecom circles and 10 large telecom districts,[2] each headed by a Senior Administrative Grade (SAG) level officer, termed as Deputy Director General (DDG).The main functions of TERM Cells are vigilance, monitoring and security of the network.Apart from this, TERM Cells also operate the Central Monitoring System (CMS), a clandestine mass electronic surveillance program, and carry out other functions. The TERM Cells function as the subordinate offices of the DoT in the field. These Cells represent the Telegraph Authority and the Licensor.
Q.216 Which of the following can be used to extract heavy metals from water ?
- Aluminum oxide
- Cellulose
- Silica
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM ICSE CLASS 7TH GEOGRAPHY
Q.215 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Sunabeda tiger reserve : West Bengal
- Guru Ghasidas : Chhattisgarh
- Ratapani Tiger Reserve : Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) Only 2
Ans. D
Ratapani Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh),
Sunabeda Tiger Reserve (Odisha), and
Guru Ghasidas (Chhattisgarh).
Kudremukh National Park (Karnataka)
Suhelwa (Uttar Pradesh),
Mhadei Sanctuary (Goa),
Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary / Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary / Varushanadu Valley (Tamil Nadu),
Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary (Arunachal Pradesh) and
Cauvery-MM Hills (Karnataka)
There are 50 tiger reserves in India which are governed by Project Tiger which is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA).
India is home to 70 percent of tigers in the world. In 2006, there were 1,411 tigers which increased to 1,706 in 2011 and 2,226 in 2014.
The total number of wild tigers have gone upto 3891 in 2016 according to World Wildlife Fund and Global Tiger Forum.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.214 Which among the following is/are the core schemes ?
- MNREGA
- National Social Assistance Plan
- National Programme for persons with disabilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Core schemes: For these schemes, the fund-sharing pattern between the Centre and states would be 60:40 for general category states. For the eight Northeastern states & three Himalayan states , ratio is 90:10. These are fully funded by the centre
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.213 Which among the following languages comes under the Dravidian language family ?
- Tamil
- Assamese
- Odia
- Malayalam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 1 & 4
- D) Only 2
Ans. C
The Dravidian languages with the most speakers are Telugu, Tamil, Kannada and Malayalam The most widely spoken languages of Indo-Aryan group are Hindi (or more correctly, Hindustani, which includes Hindi and Urdu), Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, Rajasthani, Assamese (Asamiya), and Odia. Austroasiatic languages of mainland India are the Khasi and Munda languages, including Santhali. With the exceptions of Khasi and Santhali, all Austroasiatic languages on Indian territory are endangered Sino-Tibetan languages spoken in India include Karbi, Meitei, Lepcha, as well as many varieties of several related Tibetic, West Himalayish, Tani, Brahmaputran, Angami–Pochuri, Tangkhul, Zeme, Kukish language groups, amongst many others. The Ongan family of the southern Andaman Islands, comprising two extant languages, Önge and Jarawa, and one extinct tongue, Jangil. Until the Twenty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India in 1967, the country recognised 14 official regional languages. The Eighth Schedule and the Seventy-First Amendment provided for the inclusion of Sindhi, Konkani, Meitei and Nepali, thereby increasing the number of official regional languages of India to 18. Writing systems: Most languages in India are written in Brahmi-derived scripts, such as Devanagari, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Odia, Eastern Nagari – Assamese/Bengali, etc., though Urdu is written in a script derived from Arabic, and a few minor languages such as Santali use independent scripts
FRAMED FROM NCERT
Q.212 Which among the following is/are the list of prohibited substances by the World Anti-Doping Agency ?
- Furosemide
- Caffeine
- Epinephrine
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. A
Caffeine, although a stimulant has not been banned by the International Olympic Committee or the World Anti Doping Agency
since 2004.
FRAMED FROM NCERT
Q.211 Which among the following is/are the wetlands ?
- Swamps
- Mangroves
- Ferns
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. C
Wetlands occur naturally on every continent except Antarctica,the largest including the Amazon River basin, the West Siberian Plain,and the Pantanal in South America. The water found in wetlands can be freshwater, brackish, or saltwater. The main wetland types include swamps, marshes, bogs, and ferns; and sub-types include mangrove, carr, pocosin, and varzea. The UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment determined that environmental degradation is more prominent within wetland systems than any other ecosystem on Earth Wetlands have also been described as ecotones, providing a transition between dry land and water bodies. The most important factor producing wetlands is flooding. The duration of flooding determines whether the resulting wetland has aquatic, marsh or swamp vegetation. Other important factors include fertility, natural disturbance, competition, herbivory, burial and salinity.When peat accumulates, bogs and ferns arise.
FRAMED FROM The Hindu
Q.210 Which among the following is correct with respect to the Mogadishu declaration ?
- A) It is the declaration for the empowerment of women that was adopted recently in 2015 in Peru
- B) It is the declaration adopted in 2016 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament
- C) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 for the reduction of greenhouse gases by the developed countries only
- D) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIO
Q.209 CAM Photosynthesis is found in which of the following species ?
- Vallisneria
- Crassula aquatica
- Sagittaria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. C
CAM photosynthesis is also found in aquatic species in at least 4 genera, including: Isoetes, Crassula, Littorella, Sagittaria, and possibly Vallisneria,being found in a variety of species e.g. Isoetes howellii, Crassula aquatica. These plants follow the same nocturnal acid accumulation and daytime deacidification as terrestrial CAM species.However, the reason for CAM in aquatic plants is not due to a lack of available water, but a limited supply of CO2.CO2 is limited due to slow diffusion in water, 10000x slower than in air. The problem is especially acute under acid pH, where the only inorganic carbon species present is CO2, with no available bicarbonate or carbonate supply. Aquatic CAM plants capture carbon at night when it is abundant due to a lack of competition from other photosynthetic organisms. This also results in lowered photorespiration due to less photosynthetically generated oxygen. Aquatic CAM is most marked in the summer months when there is increased competition for CO2, compared to the winter months. However, in the winter months CAM still has a significant role. The majority of plants possessing CAM are either epiphytes (e.g., orchids, bromeliads) or succulent xerophytes (e.g., cacti, cactoid Euphorbias), but CAM is also foundin hemiepiphytes (e.g., Clusia); lithophytes (e.g., Sedum, Sempervivum); terrestrial bromeliads; wetland plants (e.g., Isoetes, Crassula (Tillaea), Lobelia; and in one halophyte, Mesembryanthemum crystallinum; one non-succulent terrestrial plant, (Dodonaea viscosa) and one mangrove associate (Sesuvium portulacastrum). Plants which are able to switch between different methods of carbon fixation include Portulacaria afra, better known as Dwarf Jade Plant, which normally uses C3 fixation but can use CAM if it is drought-stressed, and Portulaca oleracea, better known as Purslane, which normally uses C4 fixation but is also able to switch to CAM when drought-stressed. It is found in quillworts (relatives of club mosses), in ferns, and in Gnetopsida, but the great majority of plants using CAM are angiosperms (flowering plants). The C4 pathway bears resemblance to CAM; both act to concentrate CO2 around RuBisCO, thereby increasing its efficiency. CAM concentrates it temporally, providing CO2 during the day, and not at night, when respiration is the dominant reaction. C4 plants, in contrast, concentrate CO2 spatially, with a RuBisCO reaction centre in a “bundle sheath cell” being inundated with CO2. Due to the inactivity required by the CAM mechanism, C4 carbon fixation has a greater efficiency in terms of PGA synthesis. The most important benefit of CAM to the plant is the ability to leave most leaf stomata closed during the day.Plants employing CAM are most common in arid environments, where water comes at a premium. Being able to keep stomata closed during the hottest and driest part of the day reduces the loss of water through evapotranspiration, allowing such plants to grow in environments that would otherwise be far too dry. Plants using only C3 carbon fixation, for example, lose 97% of the water they uptake through the roots to transpiration – a high cost avoided by plants able to employ CAM.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.208 Pink Bollworm & cry toxins are associated with which of the following ?
- A) Transgenic seeds
- B) Bt cotton
- C) Cisgenic organisms
- D) Bt Brinjal
Ans. B
Bt cotton is ineffective against many cotton pests such as plant bugs, stink bugs, and aphids; depending on circumstances it may be desirable to use insecticides in prevention. The gene coding for Bt toxin has been inserted into cotton as a transgene, causing it to produce this natural insecticide in its tissues. In many regions, the main pests in commercial cotton are lepidopteran larvae, which are killed by the Bt protein in the genetically modified cotton they eat. This eliminates the need to use large amounts of broad-spectrum insecticides to kill lepidopteran pests (some of which have developed pyrethroidresistance). This spares natural insect predators in the farm ecology and further contributes to noninsecticide pest management. The important advantages of Bt cotton are briefly : • Increases yield of cotton due to effective control of three types of bollworms, viz. American, Spotted and Pink bollworms. • Insects belonged to Lepidoptera (Bollworms) are sensitive to crystalline endotoxic protein produced by Bt gene which in turn protects cotton from bollworms. • Reduction in insecticide use in the cultivation of Bt cotton in which bollworms are major pests. • Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation (depending on seed cost versus insecticide costs). • Reduction in environmental pollution by the use of insecticides. • Bt cotton exhibit genetic resistance or inbuilt resistance which is a permanent type of resistance and not affected by environmental factors. Thus protects crop from bollworms. • Bt cotton is ecofriendly and does not have adverse effect on parasites, predators, beneficial insecticides and organisms present in soil. • It promotes multiplication of parasites and predators which help in controlling the bollworms by feeding on larvae and eggs of bollworm. • No health hazards due to rare use of insecticides (particularly who is engaged in spraying of insecticides).
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.207 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the slurry of biogas plant ?
- Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry increases the yield of major crops
- It has shown better yields in vegetable crops & in fodder crops.
3.It has been proved to completely remove the weed growth & their roots
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1 & 2
Ans. B
The effectiveness of biogas plant slurry in combination with chemical fertilizers was studied for the production of various crops. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry decreased the yields of major crops, i.e. wheat, bajra, jawar and mustard. Application of slurry to replace half the nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in vegetable crops while replacement of the total nitrogenous fertilizer gave better yields in fodder crops. Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.Bio-slurry reduces weed growth. Application of bio-slurry has proved to reduce weed growth by up to 50%. Bio-slurry is an excellent soil conditioner, adds humus, and enhances the soil’s capacity to retain water. Bio-slurry is pathogen-free. The fermentation of dung in the reactor kills organisms causing plant disease.
FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography
Q.206 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the river Barak ?
- Maku
- Shyok
- Tuivai
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai.
FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography
Q.205 Which among the following are the fish eating birds ?
- White breasted cormorants
- Grey pelicans
- Flamingo
- White head gannets or piqueros
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,4
- B) 1 & 2
- C) Only 1 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.204 With reference to the news there is a term Impact index, what is this ?
- A) It is an instrument used by RBI to control Inflation
- B) It is an alternative statistical system in cricket which measures the contribution of each player in the context of the impact that he has on the match
- C) It is an index used to determine the thrush exerted by the rocket while its launch
- D) It is an instrument used by Finance Minister for credit control
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA
Q.203 Under the Government of India Act 1919, which among the following subject(s) is/are not kept under the reserved list ?
- Local self government
- Education
- Communications
- Religious endowments
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,4
Ans. D
Subjects such as Land revenue administration, famine relief, irrigation, administration of justice, law and order, newspapers, borrowing, forests etc. were kept in reserved list; the subjects such as education, public health & sanitation, public works, agriculture, fisheries, religious endowments, local self governments, medical services etc. were kept in transferred list.
The ‘reserved list’ included Defence (the military), Foreign Affairs, and Communications.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.202 With reference to the proposed GST Council, consider the following statements:
- All the grocery items are excluded under the GST
- Finance minister or State finance ministers will be acted as the chairman of the GST council
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Ist statements is incorrect as Grocery items includes Pulses, Food items, Fruits,Milk etc. So not all the items are excluded under the GST
Finance minister will be acted as the chairman of the GST council
State finance ministers or taxation minister or any minister nominated by state government
FRAMED FROM MHRD.GOV.IN
Q.201 With reference to the Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme , consider the following statements :
- Only states willing to accept educational reforms will be eligible for world bank aid
- Selection of institutions will be decided by Ministry of human resource & development
- The total outlay for this plan would be 36,000 crore
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. B
Selection of institutions will be decided in consultation with stakeholders & world bank
The total outlay for this plan would be 36,00 crore
Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP) was conceived and designed as a long term Project to be implemented in 10 to 12 years in 3 Phases in order to support excellence and transformation in Technical Education in the country.
Each Phase of the Project was to be implemented on the basis of success achieved and lessons learned in the earlier Phase.
- The Phase – I of the Project started in 2003 which lasted till 2009.
- The second phase was from 2010 which lasted till October 2016.
- The third phase would be implemented as a ‘Central Sector Scheme’.
Q.200 Indo-China joint mechanism on the Brahmaputra river was aimed at :
- Sharing river water
- Sharing river water data
- Sharing information on transboundary projects
- Addressing concerns on dams in upper Brahmaputra
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY
Q.199 With reference to the tribal groups, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Labadis – Cattle herders
- Gaddis – Shepherds
- Bakarwals – Goats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY
Q.198 With reference to the ancient period, What was Pahul ?
- A) It was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil
- B) It was a device or equipment that can pump air
- C) It was the turbine used for lifting water for an irrigation
- D) It was token of being accepted as a trainee on shishya’s march to godliness
Ans. A
Pahul was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil
shishya : as a token of his being accepted as a trainee on his march to godliness.
Bellows : It was a device or equipment that can pump air
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.197 Which among the following is/are not the characteristic(s) of the Gothic style of architecture ?
- Gopuram
- Flying buttress
- Mandapa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 1
Ans. A
Gothic architecture is a style of architecture that flourished in Europe during the high and late medieval period. It evolved from Romanesque architecture and was succeeded by Renaissance architecture. Originating in 12th-century France and lasting into the 16th century, Gothic architecture was known during the period as Opus Francigenum (“French work”) with the term Gothic first appearing during the later part of the Renaissance. Its characteristics include the pointed arch, the ribbed vault (which evolved from the joint vaulting of romanesque architecture) and the flying buttress. Gothic architecture is most familiar as the architecture of many of the great cathedrals, abbeys and churches of Europe. It is also the architecture of many castles, palaces, town halls, guild halls, universities and to a less prominent extent, private dwellings, such as dorms and rooms. It is in the great churches and cathedrals and in a number of civic buildings that the Gothic style was expressed most powerfully, its characteristics lending themselves to appeals to the emotions, whether springing from faith or from civic pride. A great number of ecclesiastical buildings remain from this period, of which even the smallest are often structures of architectural distinction while many of the larger churches are considered priceless works of art and are listed with UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. For this reason a study of Gothic architecture is largely a study of cathedrals and churches. A series of Gothic revivals began in mid-18th-century England, spread through 19th-century Europe and continued, largely for ecclesiastical and university structures, into the 20th century.
FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY
Q.196 With respect to Buddhism, What are Mandalas ?
- A) These are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism
- B) These contain rules for the Buddhist monasteries
- C) These are the soteriological goals of the Buddhist path for monastic life
- D) These are the means to escape from the cycle of rebirth & attain self realization
Ans. A
— In Tibetan Buddhism tradition, mandala are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.195 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord ?
- India
- China
- Malaysia
- South Africa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4
- B) Only 1 & 2
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
* The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees, between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries. *The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. *Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord, although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord. *Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized. *The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers, but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries. *India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord *It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US, the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia, Canada, Chinese Taipei, Hong Kong China, India, Ireland, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Russia, Singapore, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. *The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs.
Q.194 What is meant by Deficit Financing ?
- A) Capital expenditure on items of public construction, public borrowing & public enterprises
- B) Difference in borrowing & external & internal resources
- C) Government’s expenditure on excess of revenue which causes a shortage in the budget therby making the government to finance its plans by borrowing
- D) Difference of the total expenditure & income from all the sources
Ans. C
*Deficit spending is the amount by which spending exceeds revenue over a particular period of time, also called simply deficit, or budget deficit; the opposite of budget surplus. *When the outlay of a government (i.e., the total of its purchases of goods and services, transfers in grants to individuals and corporations, and its net interest payments) exceeds its tax revenues, the government budget is said to be in deficit; government spending in excess of tax receipts is known as deficit spending. *Governments usually issue bonds to match their deficits. *They can be bought by its Central Bank through open market operations. Otherwise the debt issuance can increase the level of (i) public debt, (ii) private sector net worth, (iii) debt service (interest payments), and (iv) interest rates. *Deficit spending may, however, be consistent with public debt remaining stable as a proportion of GDP, depending on the level of GDP growth. *The opposite of a budget deficit is a budget surplus; in this case, tax revenues exceed government purchases and transfer payments. *For the public sector to be in deficit implies that the private sector (domestic and foreign) is in surplus. *An increase in public indebtedness must necessarily therefore correspond to an equal decrease in private sector net indebtedness. In other words, deficit spending permits the private sector to accumulate net worth. *Following John Maynard Keynes, many economists recommend deficit spending to moderate or end a recession, especially a severe one. *When the economy has high unemployment, an increase in government purchases creates a market for business output, creating income and encouraging increases in consumer spending, which creates further increases in the demand for business output. (This is the multiplier effect.) This raises the real gross domestic product (GDP) and the employment of labour, and if all else is constant, lowers the unemployment rate. (The connection between demand for GDP and unemployment is called Okun’s law.) *The increased size of the market, due to government deficits, can further stimulate the economy by raising business profitability and spurring optimism, which encourages private fixed investment in factories, machines, and the like to rise. This accelerator effect stimulates demand further and encourages rising employment. *Similarly, running a government surplus or reducing its deficit reduces consumer and business spending and raises unemployment. This can lower the inflation rate. Any use of the government deficit to steer the macro-economy is called fiscal policy.
FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY
Q.193 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Vetti – Tax
- Kadamai – Land revenue
- Nadu – Group of villages
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY
Q.192 With reference to the Cabinet mission, consider the following statements ;
- Cabinet Mission announced its constitutional scheme for the formation of an Interim Government at the Centre
- Muslim League decided to join the Interim Government
- Muslim League didn’t accept Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. D
Muslim League accepts Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.191 ketogenic diets are considered as the lifestyle choice & for weight loss. With reference to the Ketogenic diet,
consider the following statements :
- These are the high fat & low carbohydrate diet to provide neuroprotective benefits
2.These are considered as the risk free diet
- Paediatricians prefer this diet in treatment of liver & Kidney disorders
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 1 & 2
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. C
The ketogenic diet is a high-fat, adequate-protein, low-carbohydrate diet that in medicine is used primarily to treat difficult-to-control (refractory) epilepsy in children. The diet forces the body to burn fats rather than carbohydrates. Normally, the carbohydrates contained in food are converted into glucose, which is then transported around the body and is particularly important in fueling brain-function. However, if there is very little carbohydrate in the diet, the liver converts fat into fatty acids and ketone bodies. The ketone bodies pass into the brain and replace glucose as an energy source. An elevated level of ketone bodies in the blood, a state known as ketosis, leads to a reduction in the frequency of epileptic seizures. Almost half of children, and young people, with epilepsy who have tried some form of this diet saw the number of seizures drop by at least half, and the effect persists even after discontinuing the diet. There is some evidence that adults with epilepsy may benefit from the diet, and that a less strict regimen, such as a modified Atkins diet, is similarly effective. The most common adverse effect is constipation, affecting about 30% of patients—this was due to fluid restriction, which was once a feature of the diet, but this led to increased risk of kidney stones, and is no longer considered beneficial
Q.190 Which of the following is/are included in Kyoto Protocol?
- Brominated flame retardants
- Methyl alcohol
- Hydrofluorocarbons
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A) 1 and 2
- B) 2 and 3
- C) 3 only
- D) 1 only
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.189 With reference to the ancient India, which one among the following was made earliest?
- A) Lingraj temple
- B) Ajanta cave temple
- C) Elephanta cave temple
- D) Pattadakal temple
Ans.C
Lingraj temple ,Bhubaneshwar :-11th century
Ajanta cave temple : 19th century
Elephanta cave temple: 5TH century BC
Pattadakal temple : 7th – 8th century
Khajuraho,:- 95- 1050 AD
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.188 With reference to the news, what is INSV MADHEI ?
- A) Rocket launcher
- B) A Coast Guard
- C) Sail training boat
- D) Shoulder launched surface to air missile
Ans. C
INSV Mhadei is a sail training boat of the Indian Navy. The boat has two mainsails, two Genoa’s, a stay-sail, one try-sail and two gennaker’s. She is also fitted with satellite communications and electronic navigation systems – A second boat in this class, INS Tarini, was ordered in 2016 and is expected to be inducted into active service by March 2017 . The boat is being built by M/s Aquariues ship yard Pvt Ltd
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.187 With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
- A) Ellora caves
- B) Hindu caves
- C) Buddhist caves
- D) Jain caves
Ans. A
ELLORA CAVES : 350-700 AD
Hindu caves : 600- 875 AD
Buddhist caves : 550- 750 AD
Jain caves :800- 1000 AD
Q.186 In ancient India Mehrgarh was :
- A) Kingdom in the Deccan area
- B) Graveyard of the Delhi sultanate
- C) Fort in Rajasthan
- D) Neolithic site in the Bolan valley
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.185 Recently first International Agrobiodiversity Congress has been inaugurated by the Prime minister of India.
With reference to this conference consider the following statements :
1.It has been organized by the Ministry of Environment & forests
- Emission of methane gas through the agriculture activities is one of the main concern of this conference
- Diversified agriculture,Management of gene banks are the main emphasis of this conference
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans. D
Both centre and the states have an important role to play.§ – Now the government is working towards organic farming, integrated pest management, proving soil health cards which are towards promoting ecological framing and protection of bio diversity. This way farmers risk in agriculture can be minimised and income can be improved along with maintaining soil health. § Through diversified agriculture, the farmers risk in crop farming is reduced § – The Conference will lead to discussion and knowledge sharing on issues for efficient management of gene banks, science-led innovations in genetic resources, crop diversification, issues relating to quarantine, bio safety and bio security and intellectual property rights. – Emphasis on Diversified Agriculture §Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first International Agro biodiversity Congress where 900 delegates from 60 countries participated. The conference was organised by the Indian Society of Plant Genetic Resources and Biodiversity International, a CGIAR Research Centre headquartered in Rome, Italy.
Q.184 Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles?
- A) Saffron
- B) Cinnamon
- C) Olive oil
- D) Ajinomoto
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.183 Which among the following temples is/are the examples of the Gadag architecture ?
- Doddabasappa temple
- Lingaraja temple
- Kasivisvesvra temple
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Gadag architecture: The Gadag style of architecture is also called Western Chalukya architecture.The style flourished for 150 years (1050 to 1200 CE); in this period, about 50 temples were built. Some examples are the Saraswati temple in the Trikuteshwara temple complex at Gadag, the Doddabasappa Temple at Dambal, the Kasivisvesvara Temple at Lakkundi, and the Amriteshwara temple at Annigeri. which is marked by ornate pillars with intricate sculpture.This style originated during the period of the Kalyani Chalukyas (also known as Western Chalukya) Someswara I.
Q.182 Which among the following groups are adversely affected by inflation?
- Wage earners in the informal sector
- Profit earners
- Salary earners with salary indexed to inflation
- Pensioners with fixed pensions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 4
- B) 3 & 4
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 2 & 3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA
Q.181 With reference to the ancient period what is kosagrha ?
- A) Gate tower
- B) Fire house
- C) Wind mill
- D) Storage house
Ans. B
Q.180 Some substances known as ‘Short-Lived Climate Forcers’ (SLCF) assume importance in the context of climate change.
Which of the following is/are SLCF?
- Black carbon
- Carbon dioxide
- Hydrofluorocarbons
- Methane
- A) 1,3,4
- B) Only 2 & 4
- C) 2,3,4
- D) Only 1 & 3
Ans. A
Q.179 In food processing, which of the following is/are used as emulsifiers?
- Carboxymethyl cellulose
- Ethylene diamine tetra acetate
- Propylene glycol
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) Only 3
Ans.A
Q.178 In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects?
- Prevention of browning
- Increase in sour taste
- Destruction of thiamine
- Preservation of thiamine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A) 1 & 4
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 3
- D) 2 & 4
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA
Q.177 In context with the ancient Tarpa dance , consider the following statements:
- Men and women move in a circle around the Tarpa player with entwining their hands
- The dancers usually follow the tarpa player with turning their back
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
One of the central aspects of many Warli paintings is the “Tarpa Dance”—the Tarpa, a trumpet-like instrument, is played in turns by different village men. Men and women entwine their hands and move in a circle around the Tarpa player. The dancers then follow him, turning and moving as he turns, never turning their back to the Tarpa. The musician plays two different notes, which direct the head dancer to either move clockwise or counterclockwise. The Tarpa player assumes a role similar to that of a snake charmer, and the dancers become the figurative snake. The dancers take a long turn in the audience and try to encircle them for entertainment. The circle formation of the dancers is also said to resemble the circle of life.
Q.176 Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?
- A) Nerium
- B) Neem
- C) Bourgainvillea
- D) Callotropis
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA
Q.175 With reference to the ancient “Thewa art” , consider the following statements :
- It is a jewellery form with base material of gold
- It is based on the Hindu mythology or Mughal court scenes, historical events or with flora and fauna motifs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
It is a jewellery form with base material of gold or silver
Thewa is a special art of jewelry making which involves embossing of intricately worked-out sheet gold on molten glass. It evolved in Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan India. Its origin dates back to the Mughal age
Thewa is a traditional art of fusing 23K Gold with multicoloured glass. The glass is treated by a special process to have glittering effects, which in turn highlights the intricate gold work.
History of thewa art goes back 300- 500 years
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.174 Recently for the conservation & management of which of the following lake, Ministry of Environment & Forests has
constituted a team ?
- A) Damdama lake
- B) Loktak lake
- C) Dal lake
- D) Chilika lake
Ans. B
Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter at various stages of decomposition) floating over it. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating national park in the world. It is located near Moirang in Manipur state, India.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.173 With reference to the Kalinga architecture, which among the following temples is/are the example of the Rekha Deula type ?
- Lingaraj temple of Bhubaneshwar
- Konark Sun temple
- Jagannath temple of puri
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
Kalinga architecture
The prominent examples of Rekha Deula are Lingaraj Temple of Bhubaneswar and Jagannath Temple of Puri.
One of the prominent example of Khakhara Deula is Vaital Deula.
The Konark Sun Temple is a living example of Pidha Deula.
Q.172 Servants of Indian society founded by the Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Who among the following are the members :
- B.N. Rao
- Alladi Krishnaswamy
- M.C. Setalvad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
*The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905 byGopal Krishna Gokhale, who left the Deccan Education Society to form this association.
*Along with him were a small group of educated Indians, as Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal Krishna Deodhar and Anant Patwardhan who wanted to promote social and human development and overthrow the British rule in India.
*The Society organized many campaigns to promote education, sanitation, health care and fight the social evils of untouchability and discrimination, alcoholism, poverty, oppression of women and domestic abuse.
*The publication of The Hitavada, the organ of the Society in English from Nagpur commenced in 1911.
*Prominent Indians were its members and leaders. It chose to remain away from political activities and organizations like the Indian National Congress.
*The base of the Society shrank after Gokhale’s death in 1915, and in the 1920s with the rise of Mahatma Gandhi as president of Congress, who launched social reform campaigns on a mass scale throughout the nation and attracted young Indians to the cause. However, it still continues its activities albeit with a small membership.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.171 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1.Patola saris : Gujarat
- Kullu shawl : Himachal Pradesh
- Pattu sarees : Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the vodes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) All are correct
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA
Q.170 With reference to the Warli paintings , consider the following paintings:
- It is an art form made without any outline before painting
- Human and animal bodies are represented by two inverse triangles joined at their tips.
- Circle, triangle, and square are the basic geometric shapes that are employed in Warli paintings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 2
- B) 1 & 3
- C) 2 & 3
- D) All are correct
Ans. D
It is said to date back to 2500 B.C. The central motif in these paintings is surrounded by scenes portraying hunting, fishing, and farming as well as trees and animals. These rudimentary wall paintings use a set of basic geometric shapes: a circle, a triangle, and a square. These shapes are symbolic of different elements of nature. The circle and the triangle come from their observation of nature. The circle is representing the sun and the moon while the triangle is derived from mountains and pointed trees. In contrast, the square appears to be a human invention, indicating a sacred enclosure or a piece of land. The central motif in each ritual painting is the square, known as the “chalk” or “Shaukat”, mostly of two types known as Devchauk and Lagnachauk. Inside a Devchauk is usually Palaghata, the mother goddess, symbolizing fertility Male gods are unusual among the Warli and are frequently related to spirits which have taken human shape. Human and animal bodies are represented by two inverse triangles joined at their tips. The upper triangle depicts the torso and the lower triangle the pelvis. Their precarious equilibrium symbolizes the balance of the universe. Another main theme of Warli art is the denotation of a triangle that is larger at the top representing a “man” and a triangle which is wider at the bottom representing a “woman”.[4]Apart from ritualistic paintings, other Warli paintings covered day-to-day activities of the village people. – Apart from ritualistic paintings, other Warli paintings covered day-to-day activities of the village people.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.169 With reference to the Chakiarkoothu form of dance, consider the following statements :
1.It is witnessed by the Hindus of the higher castes
2.It can be staged inside temples only
- It is recited in a quasi-dramatic style with emphasis on facial expressions & hand gestures
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
This dance form is believed to have been introduced to Kerala by the early Aryan immigrants & is performed only by the members of the Chakiar caste. A highly orthodox type of entertainment, it can be staged inside temples only & witnessed by the Hindus of the higher castes. The theatre is known as Koothambalam. The story is recited in a quasi-dramatic style with emphasis on eloquent declarations with appropriately suggestive facial expressions & hand gestures. The only accompaniments are the cymbals & the drum known as the mizhavu, made of copper with a narrow mouth on which is stretched a piece of parchment.
Q.168 Which among the following is the purpose of growing plants along the river banks ?
- A) To prevent heavy rainfall
- B) To prevent seepage of water underground
- C) To prevent siltage & floods
- D) To prevent pollution
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.167 Which among the following temple is/are the examples of the Māru-Gurjara architecture ?
- Nagda temple
- Carving of elephants on Jagdish temple
- Chennakesava temple
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) Only 3
- B) 1 & 3
- C) Only 2
- D) 1 & 2
Ans. D
– Chennakesava Temple,a protected heritage site by Archaeological Survey of India and amongst the finest examples of Hoysala architecture – Māru-Gurjara temple architecture originated somewhere in the 6th century in and around areas of Rajasthan. Māru-Gurjara architecture show the deep understanding of structures and refined skills of Rajasthani craftmen of bygone era. Māru-Gurjara architecture has two prominent styles: Maha-Maru and Maru-Gurjara. – There is a connecting link between Māru-Gurjara architecture and Hoysala temple architecture. In both of these styles architecture is treated sculpturally — Nagda temple, an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture – Carved elephants on the walls of Jagdish Temple, Udaipur, 1651 CE, an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY
Q.166 The relative precedence of the Private Members’ Bill in a particular category is determined by
- A) The Speaker
- B) The Deputy Speaker
- C) The Committee on Private Members’ Bill
- D) Ballot
Ans. D
A private member’s bill in a parliamentary system of government is a bill (proposed law) introduced into a legislature by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch. A “private member” is any member of parliament (MP) who is not a member of the cabinet (executive).
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.165 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
- Auqaf – Charitable trusts
- Inam – Tax free land
- Sama – immediate requirements such as food, clothes,
living quarters and ritual necessities
Which among the above is/are correct ?
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1,2,3
- D) Only 2
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA
Q.164 In 1936 Congress declared the Ethiopian day. With reference to this, consider the following statements :
- Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom
- There was a schism in the congress for the support of Spanish republicans
- Demonstrations and meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and solidarity with the Ethiopians
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 2
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. D
When Ethiopia was attacked by fascist Italy in early 1936,
the Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part
of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom.
The Congress
declared 9 May to be Ethiopia Day on which demonstrations and
meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and
solidarity with the Ethiopians. On his way back from Europe,
Jawaharlal refused to meet Mussolini, despite his repeated
invitations, lest the meeting was used for fascist propaganda.
The Congress expressed strong support for Spanish
Republicans engaged in a life and death struggle with fascist
Franco in the Spanish Civil War. In his presidential address to
the Faizpur Congress in December 1936, Nehru emphasized that
the struggle going on in Spain was not merely between
Republicans and Franco or even Fascism and democracy but
between forces of progress and reaction throughout the world.
The Congress Working Committee,
meeting in Nehru’s absence, passed a resolution viewing ‘with
grave concern the unabashed attempt that is being made by
Germany to deprive Czechoslovakia of its independence or to
reduce it to impotence,’ and sending its ‘profound sympathy to
the brave people of Czechoslovakia.”
FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com
Q.163 With reference to the report of first national commission of labour, consider the following statements :
- The first National Commission on Labour was set up under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- It provided detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems in unorganised sector only
- Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1 & 3
Ans. C
-The first National Commission on Labour was set up on 24th December 1966 under the Chairmanship of Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar.
-The Commission submitted its report in August , 1969 after detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems, both in the organised and unorganised sectors.
-The recommendations covered issues like recruitment agencies and practices, -employment service administration, training and workers education, working conditions, labour welfare, housing, social security, wages and earnings, wage policy, bonus, workers/employers organisations, industrial relations machinery etc.
– Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws like the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 ( for removal of wage ceiling for coverage), the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ( mainly in respect of the unfair labour practices). The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 enhancement in the wage limit for exemption from payment of Employees’ Contribution), Factories Act, 1948.
FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com
Q.162 With reference to the Temperate rainforests, consider the following statements :
1.These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth
- They are less abundant than tropical rainforests
- Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 1
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
– Temperate rainforests are found along the Pacific coast of the USA and Canada (from northern California to Alaska), in New Zealand, Tasmania, Chile, Ireland, Scotland and Norway. They are less abundant than tropical rainforests
— Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage.
FRAMED FROM wikipedia
Q.161 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme
- The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of youth affairs & sports
- It provides easy access to information, mentor network, incubator, credit and accelerator to create a pathway for the youth.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com
Q.160 Which among the following foods were originally from rainforests around the world ?
- Cashewnuts
- Brazil nuts
- Starchy root
- Macadamia nuts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 1 & 3
- B) 2,3,4
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.159 With reference to the common reporting standard, consider the following statements :
- It is an agreement to share information on residents’ assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard
- It is supposed to transfer all the relevant information automatically and systematically.
- It includes all 34 OECD countries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) Only 1
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
*The Common Reporting Standard (CRS), formally referred to as the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information, is an information standard for the automatic exchange of information (AEoI), developed in the context of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
*The legal basis for exchange of data is the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters and the idea is based on the USA Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) implementation agreements.
*On May 6, 2014, forty-seven countries tentatively agreed on a “common reporting standard”: an agreement to share information on residents’ assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard.
*This agreement is informally referred to as GATCA (the global version of FATCA)”, but “CRS is not just an extension of FATCA”.
*Endorsing countries included all 34 OECD countries, as well as Argentina, Brazil, China, Colombia, Costa Rica, India, Indonesia, Latvia, Lithuania, Malaysia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, and South Africa.
China,including Hong Kong and more than 80 other countries have agreed to become signatories.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.158 What is a Green Box subsidy?
- These include direct payments to farmers to limit production and certain government assistance to encourage agriculture and rural development in developing countries
- These include government policies of Minimum support Prices (MSP) for agricultural products or any help directly related to production quantities (for eg. power, fertiliser, seeds, pesticides, irrigation
etc.)
- These include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 2 & 3
- B) Only 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Green Box subsidies include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security. These also include direct payments made to farmers such as income support that do not
stimulate production. These are not considered trade distorting and are encouraged.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.157 Who among the following are the members of the BIMSTEC ?
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- India
- Sri Lanka
- Thailand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4,5
- B) 1,2,4,5
- C) Only 1,2,4
- D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Other members of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) :
Myanmar
Nepal
Bhutan
Resolution by BIMSTEC members :
- Enhance cooperation in environmental protection and sustainable development.
- Enhance cooperation in the field of agriculture, including crops, livestock and horticulture besides fisheries.
- Finalize an agreement on trade in goods by 2014 with intent to promote regional commerce
- Conclude the Agreement on Services and Investments
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.156 Who among the following are the members of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) ?
- Finance minister
- Prime Minister
- Governor of states
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1 & 2
- C) 1,2,3
- D) Only 1
Ans. D
Chairperson : The Union Finance Minister of India
Other Members:
Governor Reserve Bank of India (RBl), Finance Secretary and/ or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS), Chief Economic Advisor, Ministry of Finance, Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), Chairman Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), Joint Secretary (Capital Markets), DEA, will be the Secretary of the Council,
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC):
Apex-level body constituted by government of India Idea to constitute such a super regulatory body was first given by Raghuram Rajan Committee in 2008
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.155 Who among the following are the members of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) ?
- UK
- USA
- Germany
- France
- Iceland
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,2,4
- B) 1,2,3,3
- C) 1,2,5
- D) All are the members
Ans. D
NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty (signed on 4 April 1949). The organization comprises a system of collective defence through which its member states accord to mutual defense in response to an attack by any external threat.
Baltic States or countries are 3 northern European countries east of the Baltic Sea – Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania, which attained independence from the Russian Empire in the backwash of World War I. In the period between the World Wars, the Baltic States also included Finland.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.154 Who among the following are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) ?
- China
- India
- FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 2
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans.A
A non-governmental and non-profit international organization with a fixed conference date and a fixed domicile. BFA was officially introduced on February 27, 2001. Since 2002, BFA has been having its yearly conference at Boao, Hainan Province, China which now serves as the permanent site of BFA Headquarters. Each year world’s Top political and business leaders gather at Boao to brain storm on global political and economic issues.
Objectives :
To base itself on Asia and encourage and deepen the economic exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world.
To offer a high-end dialog platform for governments, enterprises, experts, and scholars to collectively talk about economy, society, and environment and other pertinent subject matters.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.153 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League ?
- Chad
- Israel
- South Sudan
- Libya
- Oman
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 3,4,5
- B) Only 1 & 2
- C) 1,2,5
- D) All are the members
Ans. B
The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by Egypt, Iraq, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Transjordan (Jordan from 1946) and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century, with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admitted.
FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in
Q.152 In context with the Manipuri dance which among the following are correct ?
1) Pure dance sequences performed in the Rasleela dances follow the specific rhythmic patterns and body movements
2) The Ras costume consists of a richly embroidered stiff skirt which extends to the feet
3) Male dancers play the Pung and Kartal while dancing.
4) The Pung and Kartal choloms are performed at all social and religious festivals
5) The dancers do not wear ankle bells to stamp out the rhythms in a theatrical display
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4,5
- B) 2,3,4,5
- C) 1,2,3,4
- D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in
Q.151 With reference to the Kuchipudi which among the following statements are correct ?
1) In this dancer usually stands on a brass plate locking the feet in shakatavadanam paada and moves the plate rhythmically with great dexterity
2) Techniques like dancing on the rim of a brass plate and with a pitcher full of water on the head was introduced.
3) Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoire
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in
Q.150 In context with the Odissi dance, which among the following are correct ?
1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style.
2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body
3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact
4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4
- B) 2,3,4
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in
Q.149 Which among the following are correct with reference to the Western Indian School ?
1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism
2) exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School
3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat, Rajasthan and Malwa. The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 A.D. to the end of the 13th century. An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes, their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit. Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries (bhandaras) which are found at many places in Western India.
Q.148 With reference to the Miniature painting which among the following are correct ?
1) It depicts a gathering of Sufis (Muslim divines) who are seen seated in an open space and engaged in discussion
2) It displays supple naturalism of the Mughal style of the Shah Jahan period
3) In drawing, background is green and the sky is in golden colour
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2 & 3
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Miniature painting developed During the 10th century in western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan.These paintings are seen in hastprat [mini books written by hands ] of Vaishnav sect and Jain cult.This paintings were made to make the subject of the book more interested and to decorate the books.
Rajasthan state were integrated into western India of that time. Particular manuscript miniature painting developed in the western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan. From 17th century “Rajput miniature painting ” developed in the western part of India that is modern western state of Rajasthan. “Rajput miniature painting has its own style and beauty. ‘Subjects- The subjects of these miniature paintings are in relation to the subjects of the manuscripts mostly religious and literary. Many paintings are from Sanskrit and folk literature. It is on the subject of love stories. Some paintings from Vaishnav sect of Hindu religion and some are from Jain cult. The Paintings of Vaishnav sect are regarding various occasions of the life of Lord Krishna and Gopies. Vaishnav paintings of “Gita Govinda” is about Lord Krishna. The paintings of Jain cult is concerning to Jain Lords and religious subjects. Equipments- These paintings were created on “Taadpatra” that means the leaf of the palm tree, and Paper. During that period earlier manuscripts were created from the leaf of the palm tree and later on from the paper. Characteristic- In these paintings there are very few human characters with front face are seen. Most of the human characters are seen with side profile. Big eyes, pointed nose and slim waist are the features of these paintings. The skin colours of human being are Brown and fair. The skin colour of the Lord Krishna is Blue. The colour of the hair and eyes is black. Women characters have long hair. Human characters have worn jewellery on hand, nose, neck, hair, waist and ankles. Man and women have worn traditional Indian dress, slippers and shoes. Men have turbans on the head. In these paintings trees, rivers, flowers, birds, the land, the sky, houses, traditional chairs, cushions, curtains, lamps, and human characters have been painted. Colours-Mostly Natural colours have been used in these paintings. Black, red, white, brown, blue, and yellow colours are used to decorate the paintings. Promoters- The Kings, Courtiers of the kings, wealthy businessmen, and religious leaders of the time were the promoters of these miniature paintings. Painters- Painters of these pictures were from the local society.” Vaachhak ” was the famous painter of the time.Painters tried to make the subject of the manuscript live by these pictures so that the readers of the manuscript can enjoy reading.
FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in
Q.147 With reference to Pala paintings Which among the following statements are correct ?
1) The Pala painting is characterised by sinuous line and subdued tones of colour
2) It resembles the ideal forms of contemporary bronze and stone sculpture
3) It reflects feeling of the classical art of Ajanta
4) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism & Buddhism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) 2,3,4
- C) 1 & 2
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts.
- Pala ruled in Bihar-Bengal region
- Developed under Pala and Sen rulers
- Eighth to twelfth century
- Influence of Hindu and Buddhist
- Focus on architecture and culture
- The Architecture were fine finished
- Figures were much decorated and well polished
- Both stone and metal sculptures have been found
- Even the stone sculptures appear as metal due to high polishing
Q.146 Which one of the following provides the best estimate of the world’s biological diversity?
- A) Of about ten million species probably alive today, some 20 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists
- B) Of about thirty million living species, some 50 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified
- C) Of about forty five million living species, some 100 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 1.5 million have been actually identified
- D) Of about seventy five million living species, some 500 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified
Ans. C
Q.145 Which among the following are involved with the Sattriya Dance ?
1) Hastamudras
2) Aharyas
3) Footwork
4) Music
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1,3,4
- B) 2,3,4
- C) 1,2,3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
It is one among the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions. In the year 2000, the Sattriya dances of Assam received recognition as one of the eight classical dance forms of India. Whereas some of the other traditions have been revived in the recent past, Sattriya has remained a living tradition since its creation by the founder of Vaishnavism in Assam, the great saint Srimanta Sankardev, in 15th century Assam.
Srimanta Sankardev and Madhavdev created Sattriya Nritya as an accompaniment to the Ankia Naat (a form of Assamese one-act plays devised by them), which were usually performed in the sattras, monasteries associated with the Ekasarana dharma. As the tradition developed and grew within the sattras, the dance form came to be known as Sattriya Nritya, a name first coined by Maheswar Neog. Today, although Sattriya Nritya has emerged from within the confines of the sattras to a much wider recognition, the sattras continue to use the dance form for ritualistic and other purposes for which it was originally created circa 500 years ago.
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.144 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ?
- Kazakhstan
- Kyrgyzstan
- Tajikistan
- Turkmenistan
- Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) 1,3,5
- C) 1,4,5
- D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans.D
The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors. Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally, it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May 6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees. The Protocol awaits ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect.
Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific.
FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com
Q.143 With reference to the tropical rainforests, consider the following statements:
- Rainforests are very dense, warm, wet forests that are havens for millions of plants and animals.
- These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth
- Soil of a tropical rainforest is only about 3-4 inches thick and thick clay lies underneath the soil.
- They remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store it in their roots, stems, leaves, and branches
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 1 & 2
- B) 1,2,4
- C) Only 3
- D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com
Q.142 Which among the following is/are the examples of detrivores ?
- Vultures
- Worms
- Crabs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 2
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
Q.141 Which of the following temples is the earliest in time ?
- A) Gupta temple at Deogarh
- B) Jandial temple
- C) Kailasanath temple at kanchipuram
- D) Sun temple at Martand
Ans. A
Gupta temple at Deogarh :
The Vishnu Temple is located at Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh in Central India built circa 500 CE. The temple is one of the earliest Hindu stone temples still surviving today. Built in the late Gupta Period, Vishnu Temple shows the ornate beauty seen in Gupta style architecture. This temple is also a good resource for examining Gupta style sculptures and art.
Jandial temple :
Jandial near the city of Taxila in Pakistan is the site of an ancient temple well known for its is Ionic columns. The temple is located 630 meters north of the northern gate of Sirkap. The Temple was excavated in 1912-1913 by the Archaeological Survey of India under John Marshall. It has been called “the most Hellenic structure yet found on Indian soil”.
Kailasanath temple at kanchipuram:
It is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram.Located in Tamil Nadu, India, it is a Hindu temple in the Dravidian architectural style. It is dedicated to the Lord Shiva, and is known for its historical importance. The temple was built from 685-705AD by a Rajasimha ruler of the Pallava Dynasty. The low-slung sandstone compound contains a large number of carvings, including many half-animal deities which were popular during the early Dravidian architectural period. The structure contains 58 small shrines which are dedicated to various forms of Shiva. These are built into niches on the inner face of the high compound wall of the circumambulatory passage. The temple is one of the most prominent tourist attractions of the city.
Sun temple at Martand
The Martand Sun Temple was a Kashmiri Hindu temple dedicated to Surya and built during the 8th century CE. Martand is another Sanskrit name for the Hindu Sun-god. Now in ruins, the temple is located five miles from Anantnag in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q.140 Consider the following :
- On Indian painting Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings.
- These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life.
- Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern.
- Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting,
Above statements characterizes which one of the following folk and art form of India?
- A) Tanjore art
- B) Madhubani painting
- C) Warli folk painting
- D) Pattachitra painting
Ans. B
Q.139 Which of the statements about Bhakti movement is not correct ?
- A) Ramanuja taught at the Meenakshi temple of Madurai
- B) Founder of Madhava sect was Kanadese Brahmin
- C) Telugu Brahmin Nimbarka settled near Mathura & greatly influenced bhakti movement
- D) Impact of Sahajiyas, Tantrics , & nathyogis led to the development of the North Indian Sant tradition
Ans. A
Rāmānuja became a priest at the Varadharāja Perumal temple (Vishnu) at Kānchipuram, where he began to teach that moksha (liberation and release from samsara) is to be achieved not with metaphysical, nirguna Brahman but with the help of personal god and saguna Vishnu. Rāmānuja has long enjoyed foremost authority in the Sri Vaishnava tradition
– Madhvācārya was born on the west coast of Karnataka state in 13th-century India. As a teenager, he became a Sanyasin (monk) joining Brahma-sampradaya guru Achyutapreksha, of the Ekadandi order. Madhva studied the classics of Hindu philosophy, particularly the Principal Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita and the Brahma Sutras (Prasthanatrayi). He commented on these, and is credited with thirty seven works in Sanskrit.
-The Bhakti movement of Hinduism saw two ways of imaging the nature of the divine (Brahman) – Nirguna and Saguna.
Nirguna Brahman was the concept of the Ultimate Reality as formless, without attributes or quality. Saguna Brahman, in contrast, was envisioned and developed as with form, attributes and quality. Nirguna bhakta’s poetry were Jnana-shrayi, or had roots in knowledge. Saguna bhakta’s poetry were Prema-shrayi, or with roots in love.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.138 With reference to the Harappan Civilization consider the following statements:
- The city of Dholavira was in the form of a parallelogram guarded by a fortification.
- A ploughed-field, showing a grid of furrows, located outside the town-wall has been discovered at Kalibangan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A) Only 1
- B) Only 2
- C) Both are correct
- D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. The acropolis and the middle town had been furnished with their own defence-work, gateways, built-up areas, street system, wells, and large open spaces. The acropolis is the most thoroughly fortified and complex area in the city, of which it appropriates the major portion of the southwestern zone. The towering “castle” stands is defended by double ramparts. Next to this stands a place called the ‘bailey’ where important officials lived. The city within the general fortifications accounts for 48 ha (120 acres). There are extensive structure-bearing areas which are outside yet integral to the fortified settlement. Beyond the walls, another settlement has been found. The most striking feature of the city is that all of its buildings, at least in their present state of preservation, are built of stone, whereas most other Harappan sites, including Harappa itself and Mohenjo-daro, are almost exclusively built of brick. Dholavira is flanked by two storm water channels; the Mansar in the north, and the Manhar in the south.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 7th HISTORY
Q.137 With reference to the Medieval period, what was/were Bandagan ?
- A) Special slaves purchased for military service
- B) Special kind of cloth made up of Kirpas
- C) Generals & Governors
- D) Advisor of Kings
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.136 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements
- Each IMF member country is assigned a quota that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy
- India’s IMF quota has been reduced since past years
- The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A) 1 & 3
- B) Only 1
- C) 2 & 3
- D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest
Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power
Q.135 Which of the following does not describe the part of the classic Hindu temple ?
- A) Mandapa
- B) Garbagriha
- C) Antarala
- D) Tribhanga
Ans. D
North Indian temples are referred to as Nagara style of temple architecture. They have sanctum sanctorum where the deity is present, open on one side from where the devotee obtains darśana. There may or may not be many more surrounding corridors, halls, etc. However, there will be space for devotees to go around the temple in clockwise fashion circumambulation. In North Indian temples, the tallest towers are built over the sanctum sanctorum in which the deity is installed. The north India Nagara style of temple designs often deploy fractal-theme, where smaller parts of the temple are themselves images or geometric re-arrangement of the large temple, a concept found in French and Russian architecture such as the matryoshka principle. One difference is the scope and cardinality, where Hindu temple structures deploy this principle in every dimension with garbhgriya as the primary locus, and each pada as well as zones serving as additional centers of loci. This makes a Nagara Hindu temple architecture symbolically a perennial expression of movement and time, of centrifugal growth fused with the idea of unity in everything.
TRIBHANGA It is the standing body position or stance used in the traditional Indian sculpture, art and Indian classical dance forms like the Odissi. Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three bends in the body; at the neck, waist and knee, hence the body is oppositely curved at waist and neck which