1.IAS QUESTION
Convertibility of rupee implies
(a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
(d) developing an international market for currencies in India
MOCK-3
Q.99Capital account Convertibility of the Indian rupee means:
A) Indian rupee can be exchanged for the any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets.
B) Indian rupee can be exchanged for the any major currency for the purpose of trading in goods & services.
C) Indian rupee can be exchanged by authorized dealers for travel
D) None of the above
Ans. A
ANOTHER QUESTION
MOCK-1
Q.41 Why Convertibility of Indian rupee is considered as a important goal of the economic liberalization ?
A) Because it helps to attract more foreign capital inflow in India
B) Because it will help to promote exports
C) Because It will help to secure loans from the world financial markets at attractive terms
D) Because it will stabilize its exchange value against major currencies of the World
Ans. D
2.IAS QUESTION
India is a member of which among thefollowing?
1.Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2.Association of South-East Asian nation
3.East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
MOCK-12
Q.68 India is a member of:
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
2. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
4.World Trade Organization (WTO)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 2,3 and 4
D) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans. B
3.IAS QUESTION
Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following?
1. Gravitational Force of the Sun
2. Gravitational Force of the Moon
3. Gravitational Force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below
MOCK-1
Q.54 Which among the following plays an important role in formation of tides ?
1) Rotation of earth
2) Gravitation of Sun
3) Gravitation of Earth
4) Revolution of earth
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
4.IAS QUESTION
Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another.
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms.
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
MOCK-12
Q.55 An ecosystem comprises:
A) Only trees, shrubs and herbs in an area
B) Only animals in an area
C) All plants and animals in an area
D) All living and non-living things in an area
Ans. D
5.IAS QUESTION
Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
MOCK-11
Q.60 Which of the following languages has been accorded as the status of classical language ?
1) Sanskrit
2) Tamil
3) Malyalam
4) Marathi
5) Telugu
Codes:
A) 1,2,3,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) Only 1,2& 5
Ans. A
Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odiahave been recognised as classical languages.
6.IAS QUESTION
With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
MOCK-1
Q.24 Which of the following can help in reducing the carbon footprint ?
1.Using fly-ash based cement in building construction
2. Using LED-based electric lamps instead of incandescent lamps
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both I and 2
D) Neither I nor 2
Ans. C
The total amount of greenhouse gases produced to directly and indirectly support human activities, usually expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide (CO2).
7. IAS QUESTION
We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of :
TEST SERIES Mock-10
Q.50 We often find the term “Goldilocks Zone” in news.It is mentioned in the context of :
A) Identification of earth-like planets in the universe
B) Use of wireless short distance communication
C) Minimum distance required between Earth & any artificial satellite revolving around it
D) None of the above
Ans. A
8. IAS QUESTION
In which of the following States are the famous ‘Living Root Bridges’ found
Direct Question Mock-10
Q.52 In which of the following states famous ‘ Living Root Bridges “ found ?
A) Arunachal Pradesh
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Kerala
D) Meghalaya
Ans. D
9. IAS QUESTION
In which one of the following National Parks has a climate, that varies from tropical to sub-tropical temperate and arctic ?
Direct Question MOCK-14
Q.23 In which one of the following National Parks has a climate, that varies from tropical to sub-tropical temperate and arctic ?
A) Kangchendzonga National Park
B) Nandadevi National Park
C) Neora National Park
D) Namdhapa National Park
Ans.A
10.IAS QUESTION
In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
Direct Question
MOCK-9
Q.13 In which of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species ?
A) Tropical rain forest
B) Tropical deciduous forest
C) Tropical thorn & scrub forest
D) Temperate forest with grasslands
Ans. B
11.IAS QUESTION
With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/an; correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
MOCK-1
Q.24 Which of the following is not considered as a Vulnerable ?
A) Fishing Cat
B) Sea Cow (Dugong)
C) Clouded Leopard
D) Red Panda
Ans. A
The dugong is a large marine mammal which, together with the manatees, is one of four living species of the order Sirenia. It is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th century. It is also the only sirenian in its range, which spans the waters of at least 37 countries throughout theIndo-Pacific, though the majority of dugongs live in the northern waters of Australia between Shark Bay and Moreton Bay. The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
Like all modern sirenians, the dugong has a fusiform body with no dorsal fin or hind limbs, instead possessing paddle-like forelimbs used to manoeuvre. It is easily distinguished from the manatees by its fluked, dolphin-like tail, but also possesses a unique skull and teeth. The dugong is heavily dependent on seagrasses for subsistence and is thus restricted to the coastal habitats where they grow, with the largest dugong concentrations typically occurring in wide, shallow, protected areas such as bays, mangrove channels and the lee sides of large inshore islands. Its snout is sharply downturned, an adaptation for grazing and uprooting benthic seagrasses.
The dugong has been hunted for thousands of years for its meat and oil. Traditional hunting has great cultural significance throughout its range. The dugong’s current distribution is reduced and disjunct, and many populations are close to extinction. The IUCN lists the dugong as a species vulnerable to extinction, while the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species limits or bans the trade of derived products. Despite being legally protected in many countries, the main causes of population decline remain anthropogenic and include hunting, habitat degradation, and fishing-related fatalities. With its long lifespan of 70 years or more, and slow rate of reproduction, the dugong is especially vulnerable to extinction.
DISTRIBUTION & HABITAT:
Dugongs are found in warm coastal waters from the western Pacific Ocean to the eastern coast of Africa, along an estimated 140,000 kilometres (86,992 mi) of coastline between 26° and 27° degrees to the north and south of the equator. Their historic range is believed to correspond to that of seagrasses from the Potamogetonaceae and Hydrocharitaceae families. The full size of the former range is unknown, although it is believed that the current populations represent the historical limits of the range, which is highly fractured. The dugong is the only strictly-marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee utilise fresh water to some degree. Recorded numbers of dugongs are generally believed to be lower than actual numbers, due to a lack of accurate surveys. Despite this, the dugong population is thought to be shrinking, with a worldwide decline of 20 per cent in the last 90 years. They have disappeared from the waters of Hong Kong, Mauritius, and Taiwan, as well as parts of Cambodia, Japan, the Philippinesand Vietnam. Further disappearances are likely.
Populations of dugongs exist in the water of 37 countries and territories. In the late 1960s, herds of up to 500 dugongs were observed off the coast ofEast Africa and nearby islands. However, current populations in this area are extremely small, numbering 50 and below, and it is thought likely they will become extinct. The eastern side of the Red Sea is the home of large populations numbering in the hundreds, and similar populations are thought to exist on the western side. In the 1980s, it was estimated there could be as many as 4,000 dugongs in the Red Sea. The Persian Gulf has the second-largest dugong population in the world, inhabiting most of the southern coast, and the current population is believed to be around 7,500.
A highly isolated breeding population exists in the Gulf of Kutch, the only population remaining in western India. It is 1,500 kilometres (932 mi) from the population in the Persian Gulf, and 1,700 kilometres (1,056 mi) from the nearest population in India. Former populations in this area, centred on the Maldives and the Laccadive Islands, are presumed to be extinct. A population exists in the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka, but it is seriously depleted. A small population exists around the Nansei Shotoislands, and a population formerly existed off Taiwan. An endangered population of 50 or fewer dugongs survives around Okinawa.
12.IAS QUESTION
Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
MOCK-1
Q.26 Gangetic Dolphins are commonly found at :
A) Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, west Bengal & Jharkhand.
B) Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, west Bengal & Jharkhand.
C) Assam, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Uttrakhand, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh.
D) Uttar Pradesh, Uttrakhand, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh.
Ans.A
Gangetic Dolphins found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan which is split into two subspecies, the Ganges river dolphin and Indus river dolphin The Ganges river dolphin is primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in Bangladesh, India and Nepal, while the Indus river dolphin is found in the Indus River in Pakistan and its Beas and Sutlej tributaries. From the 1970s until 1998, they were regarded as separate species; however, in 1998, their classification was changed from two separate species to subspecies of a single species.The Ganges river dolphin has been recognized by the government of India as its National Aquatic Animal
13.IAS QUESTION
There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Mock-11
Q.39 which among the following are the fiscal measures ?
1) Bank rate Policy
2) Open Market operations
3) Devaluation of Rupee
Codes:
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 1
C) 1 & 3
D) Only 3
Ans. D
Monetary Policy includes Bank Rates which are taken by the Central bank of India i.e. RBI
Fiscal policy is taken by the Government.
Another questions
MOCK-4
Q.87 Which of the following are considered as the instruments of the Monetary Policy ?
1) Open Market operations
2) Government spending
3) Discount rates
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
ANOTHER QUESTION
MOCK-1
Q.39 In context with the bank Rate , consider the following statements:
1) It is the rate of interest at which reserve Bank of India discounts the bill of exchange.
2) It is an instrument of Monetary policy to effluence Money supply in an economy.
3) It is also called as a rate of interest at which RBI provides loans to the commercial Bank.
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 1 & 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
14.IAS QUESTION
Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
I. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
MOCK-1
Q.37 Which of the following are not included in Mahajanapadas ?
1) Malla
2) Chedi
3) Panchala
4) Kosala
5) Anga
Codes:
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) All above are included
Ans. D
Vriji, Matsaya, Surasena, Kasii, Magadha, Avanti, Gandhara, Kamboja are also included inMahajanapadas
15.IAS QUESTIONS
With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements:
1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
MOCK-3
Q.100 Consider the following statements:
1) IOR-ARC is the only regional forum linking most countries on the Indian Ocean.
2) IOR-ARC seeks to expand mutually beneficial cooperation through consensus based evolutionary & non-intrusive approach.
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
16.IAS QUESTION
Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
MOCK-4
Q.3 “Votes on Account” permits union Government to:
A) give grant in aid to states
B) withdraw money from Consolidated Fund of India for specific period
C) Go for Public loan
D) Borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India
Ans. B
Demands for Grants
The estimates of expenditure included in the Budget and required to be voted by Lok Sabha are in the form of Demands for Grants. These Demands are arranged Ministry-wise and a separate Demand for each of the major services is presented. Each Demand contains first a statement of the total grant and then a statement of the detailed estimate divided into items.
Another question
Mock-4
Q.81 Statements:
1) Public account Funds partially belongs to the government
2) Parliamentary authorization for these funds is required
3) Some amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund Of India & kept in the Public Account
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
17.IAS QUESTION
The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
MOCK-4
Q.4 In context with the Directive Principles of state Policy, consider the following statements:
1) prohibition of consumption of liquor
2) Prohibition of employment of children in factories or mines
3) Prohibition of Untouchability
4) Prohibition of beggar or forced labour
Codes:
A) 1,2,3
B) Only 1
C) 2,3,4
D) Only 2
Ans. B
The Directive Principles of State Policy constitute another important feature of the Indian Constitution. It is an idealistic and philosophical chapter in the Indian Constitution, which contains various aims and aspirations to be fulfilled by the State in distant future. They provide the much-desired philosophy of the Constitution and give “an Instrument of Instructions” to the Government to follow the specific policies.
Underlying idea behind the Directive Principles is that whichever party may possess the rein of administration should implement these constitutional ideals.
While incorporating the chapter on Directive Principles, the framers of the Constitution were inspired by the Spanish and Irish constitutional practices. While in the Spanish and Irish Constitutions there are brief references to a few of the Directive Principles, the Indian Constitution contains an elaborate and exhaustive list of Directive Principles.
A close scrutiny of the Directive Principles in our Constitution reveals that they contain Social, Gandhian, and Liberal ideas. The particular aim of these Directive Principles is to make India a Welfare State by introducing measures of socialism in economic sphere, to provide social security and better standards of sanitation and care for all, to emphasize duty towards women and children and the obligations towards the backward and tribal classes.
These principles are, however, not enforceable in any Court nor the Constitution imposes any duty to apply these principles in making laws. While Fundamental Rights are negative in character, the Directive Principles set forth a positive programmed for the State to be implemented at its own convenience.
Although they are not enforceable in the Courts, the Constitution solemnly proclaims them to be “fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws”. These principles are to serve “as a sign post and guide the State in its entire works.”
18.IAS QUESTION
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
MOCK-5
Q.5 Statements:
1) Recently Basmati rice has won national accreditation by the Geographical Indication Registry
2) A Geographical Indication is given to the certain products which corresponds to the specific geographic location
3) India being a member of the WTO has not enacted to the geographical Indications of Goods act.
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 1 & 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations.
India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection)Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.
19.
Q. In IAS – Steps to reduce fiscal deficit?
Mock-15
Q.1 In context with the Interim Budget which among the following statements are correct ?
1) Vote on Account deals only with the expenditure of the government’s budget while an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.
2) The government can announce any major welfare schemes in the Interim Budget.
3) During an election year, successive governments avoid making any major changes in income tax laws during an Interim Budget
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
Another question
Mock-5
Q.16 Statements:
1) Fiscal Policy is the influence of the income & expenditure of the government
2) Any measure related to the Government taxation & government spending will be termed as the fiscal measure
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Explanation:
7. Reducing the Deficit in the Balance of Payment
Fiscal policy attempts to encourage more exports by way of fiscal measures like Exemption of income tax on export earnings, Exemption of central excise duties and customs, Exemption of sales tax and octroi, etc.
The foreign exchange is also conserved by Providing fiscal benefits to import substitute industries, Imposing customs duties on imports, etc.
The foreign exchange earned by way of exports and saved by way of import substitutes helps to solve balance of payments problem. In this way adverse balance of payment can be corrected either by imposing duties on imports or by giving subsidies to export.
20.IAS QUESTION
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given beiow.
Mock-15
Q.54 In context with the Green climate Fund consider the following statements:
1) Green Climate Fund launched to boost technology & to promote Clean technology.
2) The Green Climate Fund will start operating from 2013 & G-20 will look into the details of modalities during its session in 2012.
3) It will provide money & other assistance like technology transfer relating to the clean energy technologies & to help the poorer nations.
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. D
21.IAS QUESTION
With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Mock-17
Q.4 Regarding CITES (Convention on International Trade In endangered Species), consider the following statements :
1) It is an international agreement between the government to ensure International trade of Plants & animals do not threaten their survival
2) It is a legally binding on all the parties of the convention
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
22.IAS QUESTION
Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Mock- 17
Q.26 Which of the following resolutions become the cause of split in congress in Surat in 1907 ?
1) Swadeshi
2) Boycott
3) Annulment of partitions of Bengal
4) National Education
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
23.IAS QUESTION
With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Mock-19
Q.8 Which of the following are the government suggestions to control Inflation ?
1) Check on supply of money
2) Check on hoarding
3) Increase in agricultural output
4) Tax on agricultural income
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
24.IAS QUESTION
Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Mock-5
Q.42 Which of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha in comparison to the Rajya Sabha ?
1) Money/finance bill can be introduced only in the house of people
2) Regarding rejection or amendment of the Money Bill.
3) Accountability of the Council of Minitsters.
4) Concerning creation of one or more All India Services
Codes:
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4
D) 2,3,4
Ans. B
25. IAS QUESTION
Consider the following statements
1. The winds which blow between 30 degrees N and 60 degrees S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Mock-6
Q.31
Explanation:
The Westerlies, anti-trades, or Prevailing Westerlies, are prevailing winds in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude,
26.IAS QUESTION
Q. In IAS question was on deflection of current ?
Mock-6
Q.62 Which of the following factors influences ocean currents ?
1) Rotation of earth
2) Air pressure & wind
3) Revolution of earth
4) Density of ocean water
Codes:
A) 1 & 4
B) 1,2,4
C) 2,3,4
D) 1 & 2
Ans. B
Another questions
Mock-6
Q.32 Statements:
1) Composition of the lowest layer of the atmosphere remains relatively constant
2) Rotation of the earth causes deflection of the wind by the coriolis force
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
27.IAS QUESTION
In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions
Mock-6
Q.72 Statements:
1) Polar areas have high atmospheric pressure
2) Polar areas receive minimum sunshine throughout the year
3) Each Polar region tend to send strong winds varying from cool to cold towards the equator
4) Coriolis force is higher in the southern hemisphere as compared to the northern hemisphere
Codes:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
28.IAS QUESTION MOCK-7
Q.30 In context with the Near Field Communication, which among the following is/are correct ?
1) It is a set of standards for smartphones and similar devices to establish radio communication
2) There is no communication possible between an NFC device and an unpowered NFC chip
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Near field communication (NFC) is a set of standards for smartphones and similar devices to establish radio communication with each other by touching them together or bringing them into proximity, usually no more than a few inches.
Present and anticipated applications include contactless transactions, data exchange, and simplified setup of more complex communications such as Wi-Fi. Communication is also possible between an NFC device and an unpowered NFC chip, called a “tag”.
NFC standards cover communications protocols and data exchange formats, and are based on existing radio-frequency identification (RFID) standards including ISO/IEC 14443 and FeliCa. The standards include ISO/IEC 18092[4] and those defined by the NFC Forum, which was founded in 2004 by Nokia, Philips Semiconductors (became NXP Semiconductors since 2006) and Sony, and now has more than 160 members.The Forum also promotes NFC and certifies device compliance and if it fits the criteria for being considered a personal area network.
In addition to the NFC Forum, the GSMA has also worked to define a platform for the deployment of “GSMA NFC Standards”. within mobile handsets. GSMA’s efforts include “Trusted Services Manager”., Single Wire Protocol, testing and certification, “secure element”..
The GSMA’s standards surrounding the deployment of NFC protocols (governed by the NFC Forum above) on mobile handsets are not exclusive nor universally accepted. For example, Google’s deployment of Host Card Emulation on “Android KitKat 4.4”. in January 2014 provides for software control of a universal radio. In this “HCE Deployment”., the NFC protocol is leveraged without the GSMAs standards.
29.IAS QUESTION
With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended government a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian Courts.
3. It provided for more Indians ill the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Mock-13
Q.15 Consider the Objectives of the Cabinet Mission Plan :
1) It aimed to transfer of power from the British Government to Indian leadership
2) It aimed to set up an Executive Council with the support of the main Indian parties
3) It aimed to set up a constitution body
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The British Cabinet Mission of 1946 to India aimed to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from the British Government to Indian leadership, providing India with independence. Formulated at the initiative of Clement Attlee, the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, the mission consisted of Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty. Lord Wavell, the Viceroy of India, did not participate.
Purpose and proposals
The Mission’s purpose:
1. Hold preparatory discussions with elected representatives of British India and the Indian states in order to secure agreement as to the method of framing the constitution.
2. Set up a constitution body.
3. Set up an Executive Council with the support of the main Indian parties.
The Mission held talks with the representatives of the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League, the two largest political parties in the Constituent Assembly of India. The two parties planned to determine a power-sharing arrangement between Hindus and Muslims to prevent a communal dispute, and to determine whether British India would be better-off unified or divided. The Congress party under Gandhi-Nehru nexus wanted to obtain a strong central government with more powers compared to state governments. The All India Muslim League under Jinnah, wanted to keep India united but with political safeguards provided to Muslims such as ‘guarantee’ of ‘parity’ in the legislatures. This stance of the League was backed up by the wide belief of Muslims that the British Raj was simply going to be turned into a ‘Hindu Raj’ once the British departed; and since the Muslim League regarded itself as the sole spokesman party of Indian Muslims, it was incumbent up on it to take the matter up with the Crown. After initial dialogue, the Mission proposed its plan over the composition of the new government on May 16, 1946
30. IAS QUESTION
Q. In an examination question was Department of revenue was responsible for budget preparation ?
Mock-13
Q.57 Which among the following department is responsible for the preparation & presentation of the Union Budget to Parliament ?
A) Department of Expenditure
B) Department of Financial Services
C) Department of economic affairs
D) Department of Revenue
Ans. C
31.IAS QUESTION
Q. Questions was asked in statement in which one was asking: Executive power is vesten in Prime Minister ?
Mock-13
Q.70 Statements:
1) President may by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President resign his office
2) Executive power of the Union is vested in the President
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
32.IAS QUESTION
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the :
Mock-13
Q.83 Which among the following are the fundamental duties ?
From explanation of Q.83 it can be easily solved
33.IAS QUESTION Mock-14
Q.68 Statements:
1) Soveriginity of Indian Parliament is restricted by the Judicial review
2) Parliament is considered as a guardian of the Indian Constitution
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Supreme Court is considered as a guardian of the Indian Constitution
34.IAS QUESTION
The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
(a) goods and services
(b) gold and silver
(c) dollars and other hard currencies
(d) exportable surplus
Mock-8
Q.29 Statements:
1) Fall in value of currency promotes exports which makes export cheaper
2) Fall in value of currency implies exchange rate of currency has been reduced used for International trade
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
35.IAS QUESTION
Q. In IAS questions was asked on in Statements on Rowlatt act & 2nd statements was on Non-coopertaion league.
Mock-9
Q.65 Statements:
1) Rowlatt act resulted in the tragedy of Jallianwala bagh
2) Gandhiji shot into the prominence in the Indian politics after Jallianwala bagh tragedy
3) Gandhiji launched large scale mass movements in India before 1920
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
Gandhiji gained the prominence in Chamaparan movement & was addressed as mahatma.
Gandhiji launched large scale mass movement after Jallianwala tragedy & non-cooperation was the movement.
The Rowlatt Act, passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in London on March 10, 1919, indefinitely extending “emergency measures” (of the Defence of India Regulations Act) enacted during the First World War in order to control public unrest and root out conspiracy in India. Passed on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee and named after its president, British judge Sir Sidney Rowlatt, this act effectively authorized the government to imprison any person suspected of terrorism living in the Raj for up to two years without a trial, and gave the imperial authorities power to deal with all revolutionary activities. The unpopular legislation provided for stricter control of the press, arrests without warrant, indefinite detention without trial, and juryless in camera trials for proscribed political acts. The accused were denied the right to know the accusers and the evidence used in the trial. Those convicted were required to deposit securities upon release, and were prohibited from taking part in any political, educational, or religious activities.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, among other Indian leaders, was extremely critical of the Act and argued that not everyone should get punishment in response to isolated political crimes. The Act annoyed many Indian leaders and the public, which caused the government to implement repressive measures. Gandhi and others found that constitutional opposition to the measure was fruitless, so on April 6, a “hartal” was organised where Indians would suspend all business and fast as a sign of their opposition. This event is known as the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Gandhiji named the Rowlatt Act as “black act”.
However, the success of the hartal in Delhi, on March 30, was overshadowed by tensions running high, which resulted in rioting in the Punjab and other provinces. Deciding that Indians were not ready to make a stand consistent with the principle of nonviolence, an integral part of satyagraha, Gandhi suspended the resistance.
The Rowlatt Act came into effect in March 1919. In the Punjab the protest movement was very strong, and on April 10 two leaders of the congress, Dr. Satya Pal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew, were arrested and taken to an unknown place.
The army was called into Punjab, and on April 13 people from neighbouring villages gathered for Baisakhi Day celebrations in Amritsar, which led to the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919.
Accepting the report of the Repressive Laws Committee, the Government of India repealed the Rowlatt Act, the Press Act, and twenty-two other laws in March 1922.
36.IAS QUESTION
Q. In IAS questions was asked on cause of tides ?
Mock-10
Q.83 Statements:
1) Ocean Currents are caused by the difference in temperature & irregular shape of the continents.
2) Tides are caused by the Gravitational force of the Sun, Moon & Earth.
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
37.IAS QUESTION
Q. In Examination question was on what happen if liquidity has been reduced by 50 points?
Mock-11
Q.2 Banks needs liquidity to meet which of the following objective ?
1) To meet deposit withdrawl
2) Fund loan demands
3) Maintain Public confidence
Codes:
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 1
C) 2 & 3
D) Only 2
Ans. A
38. IAS QUESTION
Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol
MOCK-2
Q.64 Statements:
1) Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerator uses Chloroflurocarbons.
2) Liquification of ammonia occurs at a low pressure & ambient temperature.
Options:
A) only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is an organic compound that contains carbon, chlorine, and fluorine, produced as a volatile derivative of methane and ethane. A common subclass is the hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), which contain hydrogen, as well. Freon is DuPont’s brand name for CFCs, HCFCs and related compounds. Other commercial names from around the world are Algofrene, Arcton, Asahiflon, Daiflon, Eskimo, FCC, Flon, Flugene, Forane, Fridohna, Frigen, Frigedohn, Genetron, Isceon, Isotron, Kaiser, Kaltron, Khladon, Ledon, Racon, and Ucon. The most common representative is dichlorodifluoromethane (R-12 or Freon-12).
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are a family of chemical compounds developed back in the 1930’s as safe, non-toxic, non-flammable alternative to dangerous substances like ammonia for purposes of refrigeration and spray can propellants. Their usage grew enormously over the years. One of the elements that make up CFCs is chlorine. Very little chlorine exists naturally in the atmosphere. But it turns out that CFCs are an excellent way of introducing chlorine into the ozone layer. The ultraviolet radiation at this altitude breaks down CFCs, freeing the chlorine. Under the proper conditions, this chlorine has the potential to destroy large amounts of ozone. This has indeed been observed, especially over Antarctica. As a consequence, levels of genetically harmful ultraviolet radiation have increased.
Refrigerators from the late 1800s until 1929 used the toxic gases, ammonia (NH3), methyl chloride (CH3Cl), and sulfur dioxide (SO2), as refrigerants. Several fatal accidents occurred in the 1920s because of methyl chloride leakage from refrigerators. People started leaving their refrigerators in their backyards. A collaborative effort began between three American corporations, Frigidaire, General Motors and DuPont to search for a less dangerous method of refrigeration.
In 1928, Thomas Midgley, Jr. aided by Charles Franklin Kettering invented a “miracle compound” called Freon. Freon represents several different chlorofluorocarbons, or CFCs, which are used in commerce and industry. The CFCs are a group of aliphatic organic compounds containing the elements carbon and fluorine, and, in many cases, other halogens (especially chlorine) and hydrogen. Freons are colorless, odorless, nonflammable, noncorrosive gases or liquids.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable compounds that were used as propellents in spray cans and in refrigeration units. They are several organic compounds composed of carbon, fluorine, chlorine, and hydrogen. CFCs are manufactured under the trade name Freon .
The invention of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the late 1920s and early 1930s stemmed from the call for safer alternatives to the sulfur dioxide and ammonia refrigerants used at the time, CFCs found wide application after World War II.
Chloroflourocarbons were first created in 1928 as non-toxic, non-flamable refrigerants, and were first produced commercially in the 1930’s by DuPont. The first Chlorofluorocarbon was CFC-12, a single carbon with two chlorines and two Fluorines attached to it.
These halogenated hydrocarbons, notably trichlorofluoromethane (CFC-11, or F-11) and dichlorodifluoromethane (CFC-12, or F-12), have been used extensively as aerosol-spray propellants, refrigerants, solvents, and foam-blowing agents. They are well-suited for these and other applications because they are nontoxic and nonflammable and can be readily converted from a liquid to a gas and vice versa.
Chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs (also known as Freon) are non-toxic, non-flammable and non-carcinogenic. They contain fluorine atoms, carbon atoms and chlorine atoms. The 5 main CFCs include CFC-11 (trichlorofluoromethane – CFCl3), CFC-12 (dichloro-difluoromethane – CF2Cl2), CFC-113 (trichloro-trifluoroethane – C2F3Cl3), CFC-114 (dichloro-tetrfluoroethane – C2F4Cl2), and CFC-115 (chloropentafluoroethane – C2F5Cl).
CFCs have been found to pose a serious environmental threat. Studies undertaken by various scientists during the 1970s revealed that CFCs released into the atmosphere accumulate in the stratosphere, where they had a deleterious effect on the ozone layer. Stratospheric ozone shields living organisms on Earth from the harmful effects of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation; even a relatively small decrease in the stratospheric ozone concentration can result in an increased incidence of skin cancer in humans and in genetic damage in many organisms. In the stratosphere the CFC molecules break down by the action of solar ultraviolet radiation and release their constituent chlorine atoms. These then react with the ozone molecules, resulting in their removal.
CFCs have a lifetime in the atmosphere of about 20 to 100 years, and consequently one free chlorine atom from a CFC molecule can do a lot of damage, destroying ozone molecules for a long time. Although emissions of CFCs around the developed world have largely ceased due to international control agreements, the damage to the stratospheric ozone layer will continue well into the 21st century.
In 1978 The Montreal Protocol was adopted as a framework for international cooperation regarding CFC control on the basis of the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
39.IAS QUESTION
Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
a) Bhitarkanika National Park
b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
c) Keoladeo Ghana National park
d) Sultanpur National park
MOCK-3
Q.56Keibul Lamjao National Park is commonly found at ?
A) Tripura
B) Meghalaya
C) Manipur
D) Sikkim
Ans. C
It is considered as the floating national park
40. IAS QUESTION
In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Mock-27
Q.355 The great Asian river Mekong run through:
1. China
2. Malaysia
3. Cambodia
4. Laos
Codes:
A) 1&3
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,3,4
D) 1,2,4
Ans. C
41.IAS QUESTION
Question was on members of Non-Proliferation treaty?
Mock-24
Q.84 Consider the following statements:
1. Nuclear power is the fourth largest source of electricity in India after thermal, hydro and renewable sources.
2. India is a non-signatory of the Nuclear Non Proliferation treaty.
3. India is a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1,2 & 3
C) 2 & 3 only
D) 1 & 2 only
Ans. D
42.IAS QUESTION
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
From STUDY MATERIAL JANUARY MODULE PG-8
43.IAS QUESTION
The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above
Mock-1
Read Explanation which will give you answer
44.IAS QUESTION
Question was based on when bill is referred to joint sitting
Mock-3
In Explanation of Budget procedure detailed explanation has been given
45. IAS QUESTION Mock-1
Q.90 In context with the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana with an aim of eradicating financial untouchability of poor, consider the following statements:
1) It had a target of opening 7.5 crore bank accounts by 2015
2) It is mandatory to open atleast each bank account in every family in the name of
female member
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
46. IAS QUESTION
Question was on what is meant by Parliamentary Government ?
Mock-1
Q.63 Which of the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary&
Presidential form of Govt.?
A) Power of Judicial review
B) Method of election of President/Head of State
C) Legislative supremacy in law making
D) Relation between the legislature & the executive
Ans. B
Parliamentary Government:
1. The executive is not separated from the legislature. The members of council of ministers are the members of legislature.
2. The executive is accountable to the legislature. The executive loses power when it loses the confidence of the legislature.
3. In the Parliamentary government, one person is head of state while another persons is head of government.
4. In the Parliamentary systems, the Prime Minister is most powerful.
5. In the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister can appoint only the members of parliament as minister.
6. In the Parliamentary system, the tenure of the executive is not fixed. The Council of Ministers is dismissed if it loses the confidence of the legislature before its tenure is over.
7. The Parliamentary government is more democratic, because the executive • (council of ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament).
8. There is less of separation of powers in the Parliamentary government.
9. During war and other emergencies, the Parliamentary government is relatively less effective and successful.
47. IAS QUESTION
Questions was on Why Cyclones do not occur in South ?
MOCK-12
Q.66 Statements:
1) Hurricane acquires its spin from the Coriolis effect
2) Diameter of the hurricane decreases as it moves away from the low latitudes
3) Hurricanes usually develop over the warm ocean areas
4) Hurricanes do not originate in the south Atlantic Ocean & South Eastern Pacific ocean
5) In South Atlantic & south Eastern Pacific Oceans Intertropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
Codes:
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4,5
D) 1,3,4,5
Ans. D
48. IAS QUESTION
Question was on main theme of Beijing platform ?
Mock-6
Q.28 Which among the following is not an aspect of the Gender Mainstreaming ?
A) GM was established as a global strategy for achieving gender equality by the United Nations
B) It was adopted in 1995 in the Beijing platform of action
C) It requires a review of government policy in all the sectors for eliminating gender disparity
D) GM was followed by the convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against women (CEDAW)
Ans. D
